ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Increase Client A's oxygen to 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- B. Determine if Client B has two units of packed cells available in the blood bank.
- C. Ask the dietitian to add a banana to Client C's breakfast tray.
- D. Inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A high white blood cell count, as seen in Client D, indicates infection, which may require postponing surgery to treat the infection adequately. It is crucial to address the underlying infection before proceeding with the appendectomy to prevent complications and ensure a successful surgical outcome.
2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Swallow the tablet whole.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime.
- D. Place the tablet under your tongue.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain is to place the tablet under the tongue. This route allows for rapid absorption of the medication, providing quick relief for chest pain associated with myocardial infarction.
3. A client with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Apply the patch to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin.
- B. Use a heating pad over the patch to enhance absorption.
- C. Change the patch daily to maintain effectiveness.
- D. Place the patch on the same site with each application.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for applying a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch is to place it on a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin. This ensures proper adhesion of the patch and optimal absorption of the medication. Using a heating pad over the patch is contraindicated as it can increase drug absorption and lead to overdose. Changing the patch daily is necessary for some medications, but fentanyl patches are usually changed every 72 hours to maintain a steady blood level of the medication. Placing the patch on the same site with each application can lead to skin irritation, uneven drug absorption, and should be avoided to allow the skin to recover between applications.
4. The client has undergone a thyroidectomy, and the nurse is providing care. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Hoarseness and a sore throat.
- B. Difficulty swallowing.
- C. Numbness and tingling around the mouth.
- D. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent parathyroid gland removal. Immediate intervention is required to prevent severe hypocalcemia manifestations like tetany or seizures. Hoarseness and a sore throat are common after a thyroidectomy due to surgical trauma and irritation to the vocal cords, not requiring immediate intervention. Difficulty swallowing can be expected due to postoperative swelling or edema, but it should be monitored closely. A temperature of 100.2°F is a mild fever and may be a normal postoperative response, not necessitating immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
5. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.
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