a 45 year old obese man arrives in a clinic reporting daytime sleepiness difficulty going to sleep at night and snoring the nurse should recognize the
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A 45-year-old obese man arrives at a clinic reporting daytime sleepiness, difficulty falling asleep at night, and snoring. The nurse should recognize the manifestations of what health problem?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described, including daytime sleepiness, difficulty falling asleep at night, and snoring, are classic signs of obstructive sleep apnea. This condition is commonly seen in obese individuals due to the relaxation of throat muscles during sleep, leading to airway obstruction. Adenoiditis and chronic tonsillitis are less likely as they don't typically present with the same symptoms mentioned.

2. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client learning to self-administer insulin is to rotate injection sites within the same region. This practice helps prevent lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by fat tissue changes due to repeated injections in the same spot, and also ensures consistent absorption of insulin throughout the body. Storing insulin in the freezer is incorrect as it can lead to denaturation of the insulin. Administering the insulin at the same site each time can cause lipodystrophy and inconsistent absorption. Shaking the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin is also incorrect as it can lead to insulin degradation.

4. A 70-year-old woman presents with fatigue, anorexia, and weight loss. She has noticed darkening of her skin, particularly in sun-exposed areas. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of symptoms such as fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of the skin, along with hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels, points towards Addison's disease. This condition is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to a deficiency in cortisol and aldosterone production.

5. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

Similar Questions

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