ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. What is the most important instruction the nurse should give?
- A. Report any vision changes immediately.
- B. Take the medication with milk.
- C. Avoid high-fat foods.
- D. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient prescribed hydroxychloroquine, especially in the context of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), is to report any vision changes immediately. Hydroxychloroquine can potentially cause retinal damage, so prompt reporting and ophthalmologic evaluation are essential in preventing irreversible eye complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the significant adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine on vision. Taking the medication with milk, avoiding high-fat foods, or increasing intake of green leafy vegetables are not relevant to the primary concern of monitoring for visual changes.
2. A client with liver failure is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function?
- A. Alterations in glucose metabolism
- B. Retention of bile salts
- C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes
- D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The liver's inability to use vitamin K is the most likely factor contributing to the loss of prothrombin synthesis in liver failure. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a crucial clotting factor. In liver failure, impaired utilization of vitamin K leads to decreased production of prothrombin, increasing the risk of bleeding in affected individuals.
3. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased peripheral edema.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.
4. The patient described in the preceding question has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. She is at low risk for reinfection with H. pylori
- B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was successful
- C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication
- D. Dyspepsia typically worsens with H. pylori eradication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. The serum IgG may remain positive indefinitely and cannot be used to determine failure of eradication; however, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been utilized to indicate treatment success. If available, either the stool antigen or urease breath test is ideal to document treatment failure due to their high sensitivity, specificity, and ease of performance. The relationship between dyspepsia and H. pylori is controversial, but generally, dyspepsia does not typically improve with H. pylori eradication.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
- C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
- D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access