Nursing Elites

1. A client reports recent exposure to hepatitis A. What is a common mode of transmission for this virus?

• A. Blood transfusion
• B. Fecal-oral route
• C. Needle sharing
• D. Sexual contact

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatitis A is commonly transmitted through the fecal-oral route, often via ingestion of contaminated food or water. This mode of transmission is why proper hygiene, sanitation, and vaccination are essential in preventing the spread of hepatitis A.

2. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Azotemia
• C. Falls
• D. Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.

3. A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Apply pressure to the injection site.
• D. Administer protamine sulfate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding. The appropriate action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. Increasing the heparin infusion rate can further elevate the aPTT, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site is not relevant in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of overdose or bleeding, but it is not the initial action for an elevated aPTT.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
• B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
• D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, with the client's apical pulse being 58 beats/minute, holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider is the correct action. A low pulse rate may indicate bradycardia and may necessitate dose adjustment or further evaluation by the healthcare provider to prevent potential complications.

5. A client admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and reports a sudden onset of exquisite abdominal tenderness. The nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the client's abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Administer a Fleet enema as prescribed and remain with the client
• B. Contact the primary care provider promptly and report these signs of perforation
• C. Position the client supine and insert an NG tube
• D. Page the primary provider and report that the client may be obstructed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with acute diverticulitis experiencing sudden increase in temperature, exquisite abdominal tenderness, and uncharacteristic abdominal rigidity, these signs suggest a possible perforation. The nurse should promptly contact the primary care provider to report these signs, as perforation requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.

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