ATI LPN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. Which of the following statements about Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is false?
- A. H. pylori does not invade the gastric or duodenal epithelium
- B. H. pylori stimulates gastric acid secretion
- C. Eradication of H. pylori prevents adenocarcinoma of the stomach
- D. H. pylori produces a urease that splits urea into ammonia and CO2
Correct answer: C
Rationale: H. pylori is known to reside in the mucus layer of the stomach and does not invade the epithelium. It produces urease that splits urea into ammonia and CO2. This action helps in neutralizing the acidic environment and allows H. pylori to survive. Additionally, urease activity can be detected in diagnostic tests for H. pylori. The stimulation of gastric acid secretion and disruption of the protective mucus layer are mechanisms by which H. pylori promotes injury. While eradicating H. pylori infection has been associated with a decreased risk of developing gastric cancer, it does not prevent adenocarcinoma of the stomach entirely.
2. A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale
- B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
- C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
- D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee to evaluate for neurovascular compromise. This assessment helps determine the perfusion and sensation of the lower extremity, which is crucial in identifying potential vascular or nerve damage that may be causing the client's symptoms.
3. What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.
4. The mental health nurse observes that a female client with delusional disorder carries some of her belongings with her because she believes that others are trying to steal them. Which nursing action will promote trust?
- A. Explain that distrust is related to feeling anxious.
- B. Initiate short, frequent contacts with the client.
- C. Explain that these beliefs are related to her illness.
- D. Offer to keep the belongings at the nurse's desk.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Initiating short, frequent contacts with the client is the most appropriate action to promote trust. This approach helps build trust and rapport, addressing the client's need for security. By maintaining regular contact, the nurse can provide reassurance and support, which can help alleviate the client's anxiety related to her delusional beliefs. Choice A does not directly address the client's need for trust and security. Choice C focuses on the client's illness but does not actively address building trust. Choice D, offering to keep the belongings at the nurse's desk, may not be well-received by the client and could potentially worsen her anxiety and distrust.
5. What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?
- A. Proton-pump inhibitor
- B. Endoscopic balloon dilatation
- C. Sucralfate
- D. Esophageal resection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation and radiologic findings are consistent with achalasia. The absence of a mass on upper endoscopy and CT scan helps rule out secondary causes. Achalasia is best managed with endoscopic balloon dilatation or myotomy. Proton-pump inhibitors are not effective for achalasia. Sucralfate is not a primary treatment for achalasia. Esophageal resection is only considered if malignancy develops. Patients with achalasia may experience chest pain and weight loss due to food accumulation in the dilated esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation is a safe and effective treatment option for improving symptoms in achalasia patients.
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