Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements about Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is false?

• A. H. pylori does not invade the gastric or duodenal epithelium
• B. H. pylori stimulates gastric acid secretion
• C. Eradication of H. pylori prevents adenocarcinoma of the stomach
• D. H. pylori produces a urease that splits urea into ammonia and CO2

Correct answer: C

Rationale: H. pylori is known to reside in the mucus layer of the stomach and does not invade the epithelium. It produces urease that splits urea into ammonia and CO2. This action helps in neutralizing the acidic environment and allows H. pylori to survive. Additionally, urease activity can be detected in diagnostic tests for H. pylori. The stimulation of gastric acid secretion and disruption of the protective mucus layer are mechanisms by which H. pylori promotes injury. While eradicating H. pylori infection has been associated with a decreased risk of developing gastric cancer, it does not prevent adenocarcinoma of the stomach entirely.

2. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

3. A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?

• A. Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy
• B. Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
• C. Treat her for H. pylori
• D. Obtain a dedicated small bowel series

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The next step after finding an elevated fasting serum gastrin level is to perform a secretin stimulation test. This test helps differentiate between gastrinoma and other causes of elevated gastrin levels, such as proton-pump inhibitor therapy or H2 antagonists. In gastrinoma, the serum gastrin level should further increase after secretin infusion, while in other conditions, the levels would not significantly rise. Exploratory laparotomy would be premature without confirming the diagnosis. Treating for H. pylori is not indicated as the diagnosis of gastrinoma is under consideration and not Helicobacter pylori infection. A dedicated small bowel series is not the next appropriate step in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. INR of 2.5.
• B. PTT of 45 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

5. A client with portal hypertension who has developed ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What pre-procedure nursing intervention is essential?

• A. Encourage the client to empty the bladder
• B. Administer a laxative to clear the bowels
• C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
• D. Place the client in a supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emptying the bladder before a paracentesis is essential to prevent bladder injury during the procedure. A full bladder may be in the path of the needle insertion, increasing the risk of bladder puncture. Encouraging the client to empty the bladder ensures their safety and reduces the likelihood of complications.

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