ATI LPN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. Which of the following statements about Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is false?
- A. H. pylori does not invade the gastric or duodenal epithelium
- B. H. pylori stimulates gastric acid secretion
- C. Eradication of H. pylori prevents adenocarcinoma of the stomach
- D. H. pylori produces a urease that splits urea into ammonia and CO2
Correct answer: C
Rationale: H. pylori is known to reside in the mucus layer of the stomach and does not invade the epithelium. It produces urease that splits urea into ammonia and CO2. This action helps in neutralizing the acidic environment and allows H. pylori to survive. Additionally, urease activity can be detected in diagnostic tests for H. pylori. The stimulation of gastric acid secretion and disruption of the protective mucus layer are mechanisms by which H. pylori promotes injury. While eradicating H. pylori infection has been associated with a decreased risk of developing gastric cancer, it does not prevent adenocarcinoma of the stomach entirely.
2. A 65-year-old woman presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and a history of long-standing heartburn. She has been on proton-pump inhibitors for years, but her symptoms have worsened. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Peptic stricture
- B. Esophageal cancer
- C. Achalasia
- D. Esophageal spasm
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and worsening symptoms despite long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors raises suspicion for esophageal cancer, especially in a patient with a history of chronic heartburn. Esophageal cancer should be considered in this scenario due to the concerning symptoms and lack of improvement despite appropriate medical management.
3. The healthcare provider in the outpatient clinic has obtained health histories for these new patients. Which patient may need referral for genetic testing?
- A. 35-year-old patient whose maternal grandparents died after strokes at ages 90 and 96
- B. 18-year-old patient with a positive pregnancy test whose first child has cerebral palsy
- C. 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease
- D. 50-year-old patient with a history of cigarette smoking who is complaining of dyspnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease may need referral for genetic testing. Polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant disorder that can be asymptomatic until later in life. Presymptomatic testing can provide valuable information for guiding lifestyle and family planning decisions. The other patients do not present indications for genetic testing based on the information provided in their health histories. The 35-year-old patient's maternal grandparents' strokes are not indicative of a need for genetic testing. The 18-year-old patient's child having cerebral palsy is not a direct indication for genetic testing of the patient herself. The 50-year-old patient's symptoms are more likely related to smoking and respiratory issues, not genetic predisposition to a specific disease.
4. Why is a client with ascites scheduled for a paracentesis procedure?
- A. To diagnose liver disease
- B. To relieve abdominal pressure
- C. To assess kidney function
- D. To reduce blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "To relieve abdominal pressure." Paracentesis is performed to drain accumulated fluid in the peritoneal cavity, providing symptomatic relief for clients with ascites. Choice A is incorrect because paracentesis is not a diagnostic procedure for liver disease. Choice C is incorrect as assessing kidney function would typically involve different procedures. Choice D is incorrect as paracentesis does not directly impact blood pressure.
5. A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
- B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
- C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
- D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with urinary sepsis, administering Piperacillin/tazobactam first is crucial as it is an antibiotic that directly targets the infection. Addressing the infection promptly is essential to prevent its progression and complications. Vancomycin, Pantoprazole, and Enoxaparin are important medications for the patient's overall treatment plan, but in this scenario, the antibiotic should take precedence due to the urgency of managing the sepsis.
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