a client with a history of myocardial infarction mi is prescribed nitroglycerin nitrostat for chest pain which instruction should the nurse provide
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1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain is to place the tablet under the tongue. This route allows for rapid absorption of the medication, providing quick relief for chest pain associated with myocardial infarction.

2. What is the primary goal of care for a client experiencing esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of care for a client with esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis is to control bleeding. Esophageal varices are fragile, enlarged veins in the esophagus that can rupture and lead to life-threatening bleeding. Controlling bleeding is crucial to prevent severe complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary goal in this case. Reducing portal hypertension (Choice C) is a long-term goal that may help prevent variceal bleeding but is not the immediate priority. Maintaining nutritional status (Choice D) is essential for overall health but is secondary to controlling bleeding in this critical situation.

3. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, sweating, and palpitations. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for a client presenting with confusion, sweating, and palpitations, suggestive of hypoglycemia, is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step helps to confirm if the symptoms are due to low blood sugar levels and guides appropriate interventions. Administering insulin without knowing the current blood glucose level can be dangerous and is not recommended as the initial step. Offering a high-protein snack may be necessary after confirming hypoglycemia, but checking the blood glucose level takes precedence. Measuring blood pressure is not the priority in this situation; addressing hypoglycemia is the immediate concern.

4. A 35-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 35-year-old man with fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of the skin, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels is classic for Addison's disease. These findings are consistent with primary adrenal insufficiency, where the adrenal glands fail to produce adequate cortisol. In Addison's disease, the adrenal cortex is damaged, leading to decreased cortisol production and elevated levels of ACTH. This results in symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation due to increased ACTH production stimulating melanocytes. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common electrolyte abnormalities seen in Addison's disease due to aldosterone deficiency. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is Addison's disease.

5. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that can lead to tardive dyskinesia, a side effect characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial to provide timely interventions and prevent further complications.

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