ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. What instructions should the nurse give to a patient with cervical cancer who is planned to receive external-beam radiation to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?
- A. Test stools for the presence of blood.
- B. Maintain a low-residue, high-fiber diet.
- C. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement.
- D. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for signs of thrush.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient with cervical cancer is receiving external-beam radiation, the radiation to the abdomen can affect organs in its path, such as the bowel, leading to complications like frequent diarrhea. Cleaning the perianal area carefully after each bowel movement is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown and infection. Testing stools for blood is not necessary since inflammation associated with radiation may lead to occult blood in stools. Maintaining a low-residue diet is actually recommended to prevent bowel irritation. Radiation to the abdomen does not cause stomatitis, so inspecting the mouth and throat for thrush is not directly related to the effects of external-beam radiation in this context.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this condition?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate.
- B. Encourage a diet high in potassium.
- C. Provide potassium supplements.
- D. Restrict sodium intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate is the appropriate intervention for a client with hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the heart by counteracting the effects of high potassium levels and reducing the risk of cardiac complications in individuals with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging a diet high in potassium or providing potassium supplements would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Restricting sodium intake is not directly related to addressing hyperkalemia.
3. When a client expresses, 'I don't know how I will go on' while discussing feelings related to a recent loss, the nurse remains silent. What is the most likely reason for the nurse's behavior?
- A. The nurse is indicating disapproval of the statement.
- B. The nurse is showing respect for the client's loss.
- C. Silence is mirroring the client's sadness.
- D. Silence enables the client to contemplate what was expressed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In therapeutic communication, silence can offer the client an opportunity to process their emotions and thoughts. By remaining silent, the nurse provides a space for the client to reflect on their own words, facilitating deeper exploration and understanding of their feelings.
4. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?
- A. Upper endoscopy
- B. Chest/abdominal CT scan
- C. Barium swallow
- D. Esophageal manometry
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.
5. An 85-year-old male resident of an extended care facility reaches for the hand of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and tries to kiss her hand several times during his morning care. The UAP reports the incident to the charge nurse. What is the best assessment of the situation?
- A. This behavior can be considered sexual harassment and should be reported to the administration immediately.
- B. The UAP should be reassigned to another group of residents, preferably females only.
- C. The client may be suffering from touch deprivation and needs to know appropriate ways to express his need.
- D. The resident needs to understand the rules regarding unwanted touching of the staff and the consequences.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the resident's actions of reaching for the UAP's hand and trying to kiss it could indicate a need for touch rather than intentional sexual harassment. The best assessment is to consider the possibility that the client may be experiencing touch deprivation and is seeking appropriate ways to express his need for physical contact. Providing guidance on acceptable ways to seek physical affection can help address the underlying issue and improve the resident's interactions with the staff. Choice A is incorrect because assuming sexual harassment without understanding the context and potential reasons behind the behavior can lead to misinterpretation. Choice B is inappropriate as reassignment based on gender is not a solution and does not address the root cause of the behavior. Choice D is not the best approach as it focuses solely on setting boundaries without considering the resident's underlying need for touch.
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