ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
- B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
- D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, with the client's apical pulse being 58 beats/minute, holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider is the correct action. A low pulse rate may indicate bradycardia and may necessitate dose adjustment or further evaluation by the healthcare provider to prevent potential complications.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which clinical manifestation should the healthcare provider expect to find?
- A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Moon face and buffalo hump.
- D. Weight loss.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Moon face and buffalo hump. In Cushing's syndrome, excess production of corticosteroids leads to redistribution of fat, particularly in the face (moon face) and between the shoulders (buffalo hump). Hyperpigmentation of the skin is actually associated with Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome (choice A). Hypotension is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more commonly seen due to the effects of excess cortisol (choice B). Weight gain, rather than weight loss, is a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome due to the metabolic disturbances caused by excess cortisol (choice D).
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with severe dehydration. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
- B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg.
- C. Urine output of 20 ml/hour.
- D. Dry mucous membranes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A urine output of 20 ml/hour indicates severe dehydration and impaired renal function. This finding suggests a critical state where the kidneys are conserving water, leading to reduced urine output. Immediate intervention is required to restore fluid balance and prevent further complications associated with severe dehydration. Choice A, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, may indicate dehydration but is not as severe as the critically low urine output. Choice B, a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, can be seen in dehydration but is not as concerning as the extremely low urine output. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, is a common sign of dehydration but does not require immediate intervention compared to the severely reduced urine output.
4. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperglycemia. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to elevated blood sugar levels as a side effect, particularly in patients with diabetes or those predisposed to developing diabetes. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome.
5. A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?
- A. Rapid-acting
- B. Intermediate-acting
- C. Long-acting
- D. Short-acting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Insulin glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin. It is designed to provide a consistent level of insulin over approximately 24 hours, helping to keep blood glucose levels stable throughout the day. This long duration of action makes it suitable for basal insulin replacement in patients with type 1 diabetes, providing a background level of insulin to mimic the body's natural release of insulin between meals and overnight.
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