Nursing Elites

1. The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Increased respiratory rate.
• B. Decreased oxygen saturation.
• C. Clear lung sounds.
• D. Elevated white blood cell count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clear lung sounds indicate that the antibiotics are effectively treating the bacterial pneumonia by resolving the infection and reducing the inflammation in the lungs, leading to improved air exchange and ventilation. Increased respiratory rate (Choice A) and decreased oxygen saturation (Choice B) are indicative of ongoing respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (Choice D) suggests a persistent infection rather than effective treatment.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
• B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
• D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, with the client's apical pulse being 58 beats/minute, holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider is the correct action. A low pulse rate may indicate bradycardia and may necessitate dose adjustment or further evaluation by the healthcare provider to prevent potential complications.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?

• A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
• C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.

4. A client who is acutely ill has vigilant oral care included in their plan of care. What factor increases this client's risk for dental caries?

• A. Hormonal changes induced by the stress response leading to an acidic oral environment
• B. Systemic infections commonly affecting the teeth
• C. Intravenous hydration lacking fluoride
• D. Inadequate nutrition and reduced saliva production contributing to cavities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inadequate nutrition and decreased saliva production can lead to a conducive environment for the development of dental caries. Without proper nutrition and sufficient saliva, the protective mechanisms against cavities are compromised, making the individual more susceptible to tooth decay.

5. A patient with hyperlipidemia is prescribed atorvastatin. What lab test should be monitored periodically to assess for adverse effects?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Complete blood count
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Patients on atorvastatin should have their liver function tests monitored periodically to detect any potential liver damage. Atorvastatin, a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels, can rarely cause liver enzyme abnormalities, so regular monitoring is essential to identify any adverse effects early on. Monitoring the complete blood count (choice B), blood glucose levels (choice C), or serum potassium (choice D) is not typically required specifically for atorvastatin therapy. While these tests may be important for other conditions or medications, liver function tests are the most relevant for monitoring the adverse effects of atorvastatin.

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