ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased heart rate.
- B. Decreased pedal edema.
- C. Elevated blood pressure.
- D. Improved urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with heart failure, decreased pedal edema is a positive indicator of improved cardiac output and reduced fluid retention. Digoxin works by increasing the strength of the heart's contractions, leading to improved circulation and reduced symptoms of heart failure, such as edema. Monitoring for decreased pedal edema is essential to assess the effectiveness of digoxin therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and improved urine output are not specific indicators of digoxin's effectiveness in managing heart failure. Instead, the focus should be on improvements related to fluid retention and cardiac function, like decreased pedal edema.
2. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain during coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.
3. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the patient for the procedure?
- A. Have the patient void immediately before the procedure.
- B. Position the patient upright or semi-Fowler's in bed.
- C. Administer a full liquid diet.
- D. Encourage the patient to ambulate for 30 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct preparation for a paracentesis in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites includes having the patient void immediately before the procedure. This is important to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the paracentesis. Positioning for a paracentesis is typically upright or semi-Fowler's, not flat in bed. Administering a full liquid diet or encouraging ambulation for 30 minutes are not directly related to preparing a patient for a paracentesis procedure.
4. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl patch. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
- C. Avoid using additional heating pads over the patch.
- D. Remove the patch before showering.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a patient prescribed a fentanyl patch is to change the patch every 72 hours. This ensures consistent pain control and prevents complications. It is crucial to rotate the application sites to prevent skin irritation or reactions. Using additional heating pads over the patch should be avoided as it can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to overdose or adverse effects. Removing the patch before showering is not necessary as long as the patch is securely in place.
5. A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Liver toxicity
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver toxicity. Valproic acid is known to potentially cause liver toxicity. Monitoring liver function tests regularly in patients taking valproic acid is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early and prevent serious complications.
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