a 70 year old man presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain he has a history of atrial fibrillation physical examination reveals a soft abdo
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Adult Medical Surgical ATI

1. A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation. Physical examination reveals a soft abdomen with minimal tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain in a patient with atrial fibrillation, along with a soft abdomen and minimal tenderness on examination, suggest mesenteric ischemia due to embolic occlusion of the mesenteric arteries. This condition is characterized by a sudden and severe decrease in blood flow to the intestines, leading to abdominal pain and tenderness. Acute pancreatitis typically presents with epigastric pain that may radiate to the back, accompanied by elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. Peptic ulcer disease and diverticulitis usually do not manifest with the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain as described in the case.

2. A patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole should be taken before meals to reduce stomach acid production and promote healing of the ulcer. Taking it before meals ensures that the medication can inhibit acid secretion when the stomach is most active in producing acid, thereby maximizing its effectiveness in treating peptic ulcer disease.

3. A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate tool for the nurse to use during the admission assessment of a 75-year-old patient admitted for pancreatitis is the Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G). Since alcohol abuse is a common factor associated with pancreatitis, screening for alcohol use is crucial. The SMAST-G is a validated short-form alcoholism screening instrument tailored for older adults. If the patient screens positively on the SMAST-G, then the CIWA-Ar would be useful for further assessment. The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) provides information on substance use in general, not specific to alcohol. The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to assess cognitive function, not alcohol abuse.

4. A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an acute gout attack, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe colchicine. Colchicine is commonly used to treat acute gout attacks because it works by reducing inflammation and alleviating pain associated with the condition. It is important to note that aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment and may even exacerbate the symptoms. Allopurinol and probenecid are medications used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels in the blood, but they are not typically prescribed during an acute attack. Therefore, colchicine is the most appropriate medication for managing an acute gout attack.

5. A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The scenario describes a 35-year-old woman with symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance along with high TSH and low free T4 levels. These findings are consistent with the diagnosis of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, there is decreased thyroid hormone production leading to elevated TSH levels as the body tries to stimulate the thyroid to produce more hormone. The low free T4 levels indicate insufficient thyroid hormone in the blood, which can manifest as symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance.

Similar Questions

A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 65-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 60-year-old woman presents with pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses