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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Headache.
- B. Fever.
- C. Nuchal rigidity.
- D. Seizures.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Seizures in a client with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure or other complications requiring immediate intervention. Seizures can lead to further neurological damage and need prompt management to prevent adverse outcomes. Therefore, addressing seizures promptly is crucial in the care of a client with suspected meningitis.
2. A healthcare professional is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the healthcare professional anticipate?
- A. Infusion of intravenous heparin
- B. IV administration of albumin
- C. STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route
- D. IV administration of octreotide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for variceal bleeding is IV administration of octreotide. Octreotide helps control bleeding from varices by reducing portal blood flow and pressure, which is crucial in managing this emergency situation.
3. A client with cirrhosis of the liver is experiencing pruritus. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help relieve the client's symptoms?
- A. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol).
- B. Apply lotion to the skin.
- C. Encourage a high-protein diet.
- D. Provide a warm bath.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pruritus is a common symptom in clients with cirrhosis due to bile salts accumulating in the skin. Applying lotion to the skin helps soothe the itching and can prevent skin breakdown. Acetaminophen can worsen liver damage in clients with cirrhosis as it is metabolized in the liver. Encouraging a high-protein diet is not directly related to relieving pruritus. Providing a warm bath may further dry the skin, exacerbating the itching. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention to help relieve pruritus in a client with cirrhosis is to apply lotion to the skin.
4. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
- B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
- C. Kayexalate retention enema.
- D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.
5. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?
- A. Typically requires colonic resection
- B. Affects the watershed areas of the colon, namely, the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum
- C. Is only seen in the elderly
- D. Requires colonoscopic intervention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.
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