Nursing Elites

1. A client with liver cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. What is the purpose of this medication?

• A. To lower blood sugar levels
• B. To reduce ammonia levels
• C. To treat liver inflammation
• D. To improve bile flow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed to reduce ammonia levels in clients with liver cirrhosis. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which in turn traps ammonia in the colon and helps its elimination from the body through stool, thereby reducing the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. Choice A is incorrect because lactulose does not lower blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect as lactulose is not used to treat liver inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as lactulose does not improve bile flow.

2. The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase Client A's oxygen to 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Determine if Client B has two units of packed cells available in the blood bank.
• C. Ask the dietitian to add a banana to Client C's breakfast tray.
• D. Inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A high white blood cell count, as seen in Client D, indicates infection, which may require postponing surgery to treat the infection adequately. It is crucial to address the underlying infection before proceeding with the appendectomy to prevent complications and ensure a successful surgical outcome.

3. A 45-year-old woman with occasional indigestion has had episodes of chest pain and dysphagia to both solids and liquids. An upper GI series and EGD fail to disclose any structural abnormalities. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?

• A. Sucralfate
• B. Proton pump inhibitor
• C. Prokinetic agent
• D. Benzodiazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chest pain and dysphagia suggest esophageal spasm, often related to underlying gastroesophageal reflux. The initial therapy should focus on acid suppression. Proton pump inhibitors are the preferred choice to reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. If proton pump inhibitors are ineffective, other options like smooth muscle relaxants or antidepressants may be considered. A Heller myotomy is not indicated in this case as the patient does not have achalasia.

4. The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
• B. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension.
• C. Exophthalmos and tachycardia.
• D. Weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension are classic clinical manifestations of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol production. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, leading to increased melanin synthesis. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, causing sodium loss and volume depletion.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Bowel sounds active in all quadrants.
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Rigid, board-like abdomen.
• D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A rigid, board-like abdomen is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease that can lead to sepsis and requires immediate intervention. This finding indicates a potential emergency situation that needs urgent medical attention to prevent further complications.

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