Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?

• A. Increase heart rate
• B. Reduce blood pressure
• C. Lower cholesterol levels
• D. Decrease blood sugar levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. This medication does not increase heart rate, lower cholesterol levels, or decrease blood sugar levels.

2. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Red man syndrome.
• B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• C. Mild itching at the IV site.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.

3. A client with a severe head injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Urine output of 100 mL/hour.
• B. Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute.
• D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Intracranial Pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal and may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a critical finding in a client with a severe head injury. Elevated ICP can lead to further brain damage and must be addressed promptly to prevent complications such as herniation. Monitoring and managing ICP are crucial in the care of patients with head injuries in the ICU.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works by prolonging the clotting time, which is reflected in the aPTT results. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range and not at risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (PT) (Choice A) primarily measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice B) assesses the number of platelets present in the blood and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. International normalized ratio (INR) (Choice D) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

5. After a client's neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the superior laryngeal nerve, what area of assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. The client's swallowing ability
• B. The client's ability to speak
• C. The client's management of secretions
• D. The client's airway patency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve can lead to swallowing difficulties due to impaired laryngeal function. As a result, assessing the client's swallowing ability is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure proper nutrition and hydration.

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