Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take this medication every morning before breakfast.
• B. I should have my thyroid levels checked regularly.
• C. If I lose weight, I may need an increased dose.
• D. I can stop taking this medication once my symptoms improve.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Levothyroxine is typically a lifelong therapy for hypothyroidism. It should not be discontinued even if symptoms improve because the medication helps replace the deficient thyroid hormone. Stopping the medication prematurely can lead to a recurrence of symptoms and potential complications. Patients must understand the importance of continuous levothyroxine therapy and the necessity of regular follow-up with their healthcare provider to monitor thyroid levels and adjust the dosage as needed.

2. The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
• B. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension.
• C. Exophthalmos and tachycardia.
• D. Weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension are classic clinical manifestations of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol production. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, leading to increased melanin synthesis. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, causing sodium loss and volume depletion.

3. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Eat a light breakfast on the day of the procedure.
• B. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure.
• C. Avoid all liquids for 24 hours before the procedure.
• D. You can continue taking your blood thinners until the day of the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client scheduled for a colonoscopy is to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure. This solution helps cleanse the colon, ensuring clear visualization during the colonoscopy procedure. Choice A is incorrect because a light breakfast is usually recommended the day before the procedure, not on the day of the colonoscopy. Choice C is incorrect as it is important to stay hydrated and follow specific instructions regarding liquid intake. Choice D is incorrect as blood thinners may need to be adjusted or stopped before the colonoscopy to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
• D. Fibrinogen level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.

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