ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take this medication every morning before breakfast.
- B. I should have my thyroid levels checked regularly.
- C. If I lose weight, I may need an increased dose.
- D. I can stop taking this medication once my symptoms improve.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Levothyroxine is typically a lifelong therapy for hypothyroidism. It should not be discontinued even if symptoms improve because the medication helps replace the deficient thyroid hormone. Stopping the medication prematurely can lead to a recurrence of symptoms and potential complications. Patients must understand the importance of continuous levothyroxine therapy and the necessity of regular follow-up with their healthcare provider to monitor thyroid levels and adjust the dosage as needed.
2. A 56-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has severe joint pain and swelling in her hands. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease five years ago but presently has no GI symptoms. You elect to start her on an NSAID. Which of the following is correct?
- A. Proton-pump inhibitors and H2-blockers are equally effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
- B. Misoprostol is superior to an H2-blocker in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
- C. Sucralfate is not the drug of choice for prophylaxis in this patient.
- D. H. pylori infection can alter the risk for an NSAID-induced ulcer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of peptic ulcer disease puts her at risk for NSAID-related GI toxicity. Misoprostol and proton-pump inhibitors have shown superiority over H2-blockers in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity. H. pylori infection can indeed increase the risk of an NSAID-induced ulcer in infected patients who are starting NSAID therapy. Sucralfate has not been proven to be effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is B, as misoprostol is the preferred option over an H2-blocker in this context.
3. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?
- A. High Fowler's position.
- B. Supine position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Sims' position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.
4. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. What intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the NG tube?
- A. Flush the NG tube with water before and after feedings.
- B. Check gastric residual volume every 6 hours.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.
- D. Replace the NG tube every 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees is crucial in preventing aspiration, a common complication associated with nasogastric (NG) tubes and enteral feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, promoting client safety and preventing respiratory complications. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after feedings (Choice A) is not the primary intervention to prevent complications. Checking gastric residual volume every 6 hours (Choice B) is important but not directly related to preventing complications associated with the NG tube. Replacing the NG tube every 24 hours (Choice D) is not a standard practice and is not necessary to prevent complications if the tube is functioning properly.
5. When a client reports being allergic to penicillin, which question should the nurse ask to gather more information?
- A. Are you allergic to any other medications?
- B. How often have you taken penicillin in the past?
- C. Is anyone else in your family allergic to penicillin?
- D. What happens to you when you take penicillin?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Questioning the client about the specific allergic reaction to penicillin is crucial for assessing the severity and type of allergic response, aiding in determining appropriate treatment and avoiding potential adverse reactions.
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