ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. When working with a client who has chronic constipation, what should be included in client teaching to promote normal bowel function?
- A. Use glycerin suppositories on a regular basis
- B. Limit physical activity in order to promote bowel peristalsis
- C. Consume high-residue, high-fiber foods
- D. Resist the urge to defecate until the urge becomes intense
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Consuming high-residue, high-fiber foods is essential in promoting normal bowel function and preventing constipation. These foods help add bulk to the stool, making it easier to pass and preventing constipation. Glycerin suppositories may provide short-term relief but are not a long-term solution for chronic constipation. Physical activity actually helps promote bowel peristalsis, so limiting it would not be beneficial. Delaying defecation can lead to stool hardening and worsening constipation.
2. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Increased ammonia levels
- D. Electrolyte imbalance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low-protein diet is recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, can accumulate in the blood due to impaired liver function. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to worsening hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by cognitive and neurological disturbances. Therefore, by limiting protein intake, the production of ammonia is reduced, thereby helping to manage hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hepatic encephalopathy is not primarily related to hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, or electrolyte imbalance. The focus is on reducing ammonia levels to improve the condition.
3. When planning care for a 16-year-old with appendicitis presenting with right lower quadrant pain, what should the nurse prioritize as a nursing diagnosis?
- A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to decreased oral intake
- B. Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix
- C. Constipation related to decreased bowel motility and decreased fluid intake
- D. Chronic pain related to appendicitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with appendicitis is the 'Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix.' Appendicitis carries a risk of the appendix rupturing, which can lead to peritonitis, a life-threatening condition. Preventing infection through timely intervention and surgery is critical in the care of a client with appendicitis, making this nursing diagnosis the priority.
4. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.
5. A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Liver toxicity
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver toxicity. Valproic acid is known to potentially cause liver toxicity. Monitoring liver function tests regularly in patients taking valproic acid is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early and prevent serious complications.
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