ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. When working with a client who has chronic constipation, what should be included in client teaching to promote normal bowel function?
- A. Use glycerin suppositories on a regular basis
- B. Limit physical activity in order to promote bowel peristalsis
- C. Consume high-residue, high-fiber foods
- D. Resist the urge to defecate until the urge becomes intense
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Consuming high-residue, high-fiber foods is essential in promoting normal bowel function and preventing constipation. These foods help add bulk to the stool, making it easier to pass and preventing constipation. Glycerin suppositories may provide short-term relief but are not a long-term solution for chronic constipation. Physical activity actually helps promote bowel peristalsis, so limiting it would not be beneficial. Delaying defecation can lead to stool hardening and worsening constipation.
2. The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate.
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation.
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Elevated white blood cell count.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clear lung sounds indicate that the antibiotics are effectively treating the bacterial pneumonia by resolving the infection and reducing the inflammation in the lungs, leading to improved air exchange and ventilation. Increased respiratory rate (Choice A) and decreased oxygen saturation (Choice B) are indicative of ongoing respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (Choice D) suggests a persistent infection rather than effective treatment.
3. A 55-year-old man presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are classical features of primary biliary cirrhosis.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
- B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
- D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, with the client's apical pulse being 58 beats/minute, holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider is the correct action. A low pulse rate may indicate bradycardia and may necessitate dose adjustment or further evaluation by the healthcare provider to prevent potential complications.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to improve absorption.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Take the medication at the same time each day.
- D. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching regarding dabigatran (Pradaxa) is to take the medication at the same time each day. This ensures a consistent blood level and effectiveness of the medication, which is crucial in managing atrial fibrillation and preventing complications. It helps maintain a steady therapeutic effect and reduces the risk of erratic drug levels in the body.
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