Nursing Elites

1. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Increased ammonia levels
• D. Electrolyte imbalance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low-protein diet is recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, can accumulate in the blood due to impaired liver function. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to worsening hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by cognitive and neurological disturbances. Therefore, by limiting protein intake, the production of ammonia is reduced, thereby helping to manage hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hepatic encephalopathy is not primarily related to hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, or electrolyte imbalance. The focus is on reducing ammonia levels to improve the condition.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication as needed for pain relief.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is important for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication in treating peptic ulcer disease. Choice A ('Take the medication with food') is incorrect because omeprazole should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect as it does not align with the optimal timing for omeprazole administration. Choice D ('Take the medication as needed for pain relief') is incorrect because omeprazole is not typically used for immediate pain relief but rather for long-term management of peptic ulcer disease.

3. A client's healthcare provider has ordered a 'liver panel' in response to the client's development of jaundice. When reviewing the results of this laboratory testing, the nurse should expect to review what blood tests? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
• B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
• C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
• D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 'liver panel' is a group of blood tests used to evaluate liver function. The components typically include ALT, GGT, and AST. While C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and not part of a standard liver panel, it may be ordered for other diagnostic purposes.

4. While assessing a client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse observes an absence of hair growth on the client's legs. What additional assessment provides further data to support this finding?

• A. Palpate for the presence of femoral pulses bilaterally.
• B. Assess for the presence of a positive Homan's sign.
• C. Observe the appearance of the skin on the client's legs.
• D. Watch the client's posture and balance during ambulation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The absence of hair growth on the legs in a client with diabetes mellitus can be indicative of poor circulation due to compromised blood flow. Assessing the appearance of the skin on the client's legs is crucial as it can reveal additional signs of impaired circulation, such as changes in color, temperature, and the presence of ulcers or wounds. This information aids in the comprehensive evaluation of the client's vascular status and guides appropriate interventions to prevent potential complications.

5. Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?

• A. A client with GI bleeding who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7 grams.
• B. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl today and had 160 mg/dl yesterday.
• C. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.
• D. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count < 500 today and had 2,000 yesterday.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden drop in neutrophil count to below 500 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infections. Neutrophils are essential for fighting off infections, and a significant decrease in their count can compromise the client's immune response. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent the development of serious infections in the client with neutropenia.

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