Nursing Elites

1. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Increased ammonia levels
• D. Electrolyte imbalance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low-protein diet is recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, can accumulate in the blood due to impaired liver function. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to worsening hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by cognitive and neurological disturbances. Therefore, by limiting protein intake, the production of ammonia is reduced, thereby helping to manage hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hepatic encephalopathy is not primarily related to hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, or electrolyte imbalance. The focus is on reducing ammonia levels to improve the condition.

2. A client with liver cirrhosis is being educated about managing their condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid drinking alcohol
• B. I need to limit my salt intake
• C. I can take acetaminophen for pain
• D. I should eat a balanced diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with liver cirrhosis should avoid acetaminophen because it can cause further liver damage. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and in individuals with liver disease, it can lead to liver toxicity. Therefore, clients with liver cirrhosis should use alternative pain medications that do not affect the liver, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or opioids as prescribed by their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements for managing liver cirrhosis. Avoiding alcohol helps prevent further liver damage, limiting salt intake helps manage fluid retention and complications like ascites, and eating a balanced diet supports overall health and helps prevent malnutrition.

3. A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?

• A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
• B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
• C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
• D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV adenosine is the appropriate intervention for a client with symptomatic tachycardia to restore normal sinus rhythm. Adenosine is a medication used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by interrupting the reentry pathways through the AV node and restoring normal sinus rhythm. It is a rapid-acting medication given as a rapid IV push followed by a saline flush. The dose is typically administered in a healthcare setting where cardiac monitoring is available due to its potential to cause transient asystole.

4. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

5. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
• B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
• C. Kayexalate retention enema.
• D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.

Similar Questions