a 45 year old woman presents with fatigue weight gain and constipation laboratory tests reveal low tsh and high free t4 levels what is the most likely
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1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of low TSH and high free T4 levels is characteristic of hyperthyroidism, which is consistent with the symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and constipation described in the case. In hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland produces an excess of thyroid hormone leading to a hypermetabolic state, which can manifest with these symptoms.

2. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

3. A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic heartburn presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. He has lost 10 pounds in the past two months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, along with significant weight loss, is concerning for esophageal cancer. The history of chronic heartburn further raises suspicion as chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease is a risk factor for the development of esophageal adenocarcinoma. Esophageal stricture could cause dysphagia but is less likely to be associated with significant weight loss. Achalasia typically presents with dysphagia to solids more than liquids and does not commonly cause weight loss. Peptic ulcer disease is less likely to lead to progressive dysphagia and significant weight loss compared to esophageal cancer.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis and ascites is being treated with spironolactone. What is a key nursing consideration for this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as it helps retain potassium in the body. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hyperkalemia such as muscle weakness, arrhythmias, or ECG changes is crucial to prevent potential complications.

5. A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, jaundice, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels are classic features of primary biliary cirrhosis, an autoimmune liver disease. Hepatitis C typically presents with different symptoms and findings, such as specific viral markers. Hemochromatosis and Wilson's disease involve iron overload and copper accumulation, respectively, leading to distinct clinical and laboratory findings, which do not match the presentation described in this case.

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