Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this condition?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate.
• B. Encourage a diet high in potassium.
• C. Provide potassium supplements.
• D. Restrict sodium intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate is the appropriate intervention for a client with hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the heart by counteracting the effects of high potassium levels and reducing the risk of cardiac complications in individuals with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging a diet high in potassium or providing potassium supplements would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Restricting sodium intake is not directly related to addressing hyperkalemia.

2. The patient has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan?

• A. Maintain the patient on bed rest.
• B. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.
• D. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include on the care plan for a patient with a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is to encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. This is essential to decrease the risk for renal calculi associated with hypercalcemia. While bed rest is not necessary, ambulation is encouraged to help decrease the loss of calcium from the bone. Monitoring for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs is more relevant when hypocalcemia is suspected. Auscultating lung sounds every shift is a routine assessment, not required every 4 hours unless there is a specific respiratory concern.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
• C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.

4. The nurse has completed the admission assessment of a client and has determined that the client's body mass index (BMI) is 33.5 kg/m2. What health promotion advice should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. It would be very helpful if you could integrate more physical activity into your routine.
• B. You're considered to be overweight, so you should be diligent about maintaining a healthy diet.
• C. You might want to consider some of the surgical options that have been developed for treating obesity.
• D. With your permission, I'd like you to refer to a support group for individuals who live with severe obesity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing physical activity is a key component of managing BMI and overall health.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
• D. Fibrinogen level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

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