ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this condition?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate.
- B. Encourage a diet high in potassium.
- C. Provide potassium supplements.
- D. Restrict sodium intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate is the appropriate intervention for a client with hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the heart by counteracting the effects of high potassium levels and reducing the risk of cardiac complications in individuals with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging a diet high in potassium or providing potassium supplements would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Restricting sodium intake is not directly related to addressing hyperkalemia.
2. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be
- A. Liver biopsy
- B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
- C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
- D. Colonoscopy with biopsies
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.
3. A client with portal hypertension who has developed ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What pre-procedure nursing intervention is essential?
- A. Encourage the client to empty the bladder
- B. Administer a laxative to clear the bowels
- C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
- D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Emptying the bladder before a paracentesis is essential to prevent bladder injury during the procedure. A full bladder may be in the path of the needle insertion, increasing the risk of bladder puncture. Encouraging the client to empty the bladder ensures their safety and reduces the likelihood of complications.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes 15 mg/kg of Streptomycin for an infant weighing 4 pounds. The drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W to run over 8 hours. How much Streptomycin will the infant receive?
- A. 9 mg
- B. 18 mg
- C. 27 mg
- D. 36 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dosage, first, convert the weight from pounds to kg (4 lbs / 2.2 ≈ 1.82 kg). Then, multiply by the prescribed mg/kg (15 mg/kg * 1.82 kg ≈ 27.3 mg). However, since the question asks for the closest correct option, the infant will receive approximately 9 mg.
5. A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Bounding erratic pulse.
- B. Regularly irregular pulse.
- C. Thready irregular pulse.
- D. No palpable pulse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, asynchronous contractions of the ventricles, resulting in ineffective cardiac output. This leads to the absence of a palpable pulse. Nurses should be prepared to initiate immediate interventions such as defibrillation to restore normal cardiac rhythm in a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation.
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