Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this condition?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate.
• B. Encourage a diet high in potassium.
• C. Provide potassium supplements.
• D. Restrict sodium intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate is the appropriate intervention for a client with hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the heart by counteracting the effects of high potassium levels and reducing the risk of cardiac complications in individuals with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging a diet high in potassium or providing potassium supplements would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Restricting sodium intake is not directly related to addressing hyperkalemia.

2. A 38-year-old male client collapsed at his outside construction job in Texas in July. His admitting vital signs to ICU are, BP 82/70, heart rate 140 beats/minute, urine output 10 ml/hr, skin cool to the touch. Pulmonary artery (PA) pressures are, PAWP 1, PAP 8/2, RAP -1, SVR 1600. What nursing action has the highest priority?

• A. Apply a hypothermia unit to stabilize core temperature.
• B. Increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr.
• C. Call the hospital chaplain to counsel the family.
• D. Draw blood cultures x3 to detect infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr. The client's vital signs indicate signs of shock and hypovolemia, making fluid resuscitation the priority to address these conditions. Improving intravascular volume is crucial to stabilize the client's blood pressure, heart rate, and urine output, ultimately improving organ perfusion and addressing the underlying issue of hypovolemia.

3. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

4. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

• A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
• B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
• C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
• D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

5. Why is morphine administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. To reduce pain.
• B. To decrease anxiety.
• C. To reduce cardiac workload.
• D. To increase respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) primarily to reduce cardiac workload. By reducing preload and afterload, morphine helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle. This decrease in workload on the heart can alleviate symptoms and reduce strain on the heart muscle during an MI. Choices A and B are incorrect because the primary goal of administering morphine in this context is not pain relief or anxiety reduction. Choice D is incorrect as morphine does not aim to increase respiratory rate but rather to address the cardiac workload.

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