Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?

• A. Drowsiness.
• B. Itching.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression, a life-threatening side effect of opioid therapy. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring and managing respiratory status are critical in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not as immediately life-threatening as severe respiratory depression.

2. A patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed a statin medication. What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Report any muscle pain or weakness.
• C. Increase intake of grapefruit juice.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients prescribed statin medications should be educated to report any muscle pain or weakness to their healthcare provider promptly. Muscle pain or weakness could be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect associated with statin use that requires medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking statins with food or increasing grapefruit juice intake are not necessary recommendations. Avoiding foods high in potassium is also not directly related to statin use.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which pre-dialysis assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L.
• B. Blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg.
• C. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute.
• D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported to the healthcare provider before hemodialysis. Hypertension can have a significant impact on the effectiveness and safety of the dialysis treatment. Controlling blood pressure before the procedure is crucial to prevent complications during the dialysis session.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output.
• B. Improved hemoglobin levels.
• C. Decreased blood pressure.
• D. Stable potassium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin (Epogen) stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels in clients with chronic renal failure. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy in managing anemia associated with chronic renal failure. While increased urine output, decreased blood pressure, and stable potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in clients with renal failure, they are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy.

5. The client with newly diagnosed osteoporosis is being taught by the nurse about dietary modifications. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of high-calcium foods.
• B. Limit your intake of vitamin D-rich foods.
• C. Avoid foods high in phosphorus.
• D. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing the intake of high-calcium foods is essential for improving bone density and managing osteoporosis. Calcium is a key mineral necessary for bone health, and individuals with osteoporosis often need higher levels of calcium to help strengthen their bones and prevent further bone loss. Therefore, advising the client to increase their intake of high-calcium foods is the most appropriate dietary modification to support their bone health.

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