Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

2. The patient described in the preceding question has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A. She is at low risk for reinfection with H. pylori
• B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was successful
• C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication
• D. Dyspepsia typically worsens with H. pylori eradication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. The serum IgG may remain positive indefinitely and cannot be used to determine failure of eradication; however, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been utilized to indicate treatment success. If available, either the stool antigen or urease breath test is ideal to document treatment failure due to their high sensitivity, specificity, and ease of performance. The relationship between dyspepsia and H. pylori is controversial, but generally, dyspepsia does not typically improve with H. pylori eradication.

3. What action should the nurse take for a patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis exhibiting rapid, deep respirations?

• A. Administer the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2 to 4 L/min.
• C. Administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin.
• D. Encourage the patient to practice guided imagery for relaxation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis and rapid, deep (Kussmaul) respirations is to administer a normal saline bolus and insulin. The rapid, deep respirations indicate a metabolic acidosis, which requires correction with a saline bolus to prevent hypovolemia and insulin to facilitate glucose re-entry into cells. Oxygen therapy is not necessary since the increased respiratory rate is compensatory and not due to hypoxemia. Encouraging relaxation techniques or administering lorazepam are inappropriate as they can worsen the acidosis by suppressing the compensatory respiratory effort.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which pre-dialysis assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L.
• B. Blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg.
• C. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute.
• D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported to the healthcare provider before hemodialysis. Hypertension can have a significant impact on the effectiveness and safety of the dialysis treatment. Controlling blood pressure before the procedure is crucial to prevent complications during the dialysis session.

5. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Eat a light breakfast on the day of the procedure.
• B. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure.
• C. Avoid all liquids for 24 hours before the procedure.
• D. You can continue taking your blood thinners until the day of the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client scheduled for a colonoscopy is to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure. This solution helps cleanse the colon, ensuring clear visualization during the colonoscopy procedure. Choice A is incorrect because a light breakfast is usually recommended the day before the procedure, not on the day of the colonoscopy. Choice C is incorrect as it is important to stay hydrated and follow specific instructions regarding liquid intake. Choice D is incorrect as blood thinners may need to be adjusted or stopped before the colonoscopy to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure.

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