a 60 year old man presents with fatigue polyuria and polydipsia laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria what is the most likely diagnosis
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Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

2. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. The nurse should recognize that which intervention is most critical in promoting healing of the foot ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic clients with foot ulcers, strict control of blood glucose levels is essential for promoting wound healing. High blood glucose levels can impair circulation and compromise the body's ability to fight infection, delaying the healing process. By maintaining optimal blood glucose levels, the client's overall health and wound healing potential are improved.

3. A client with a severe head injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Intracranial Pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal and may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a critical finding in a client with a severe head injury. Elevated ICP can lead to further brain damage and must be addressed promptly to prevent complications such as herniation. Monitoring and managing ICP are crucial in the care of patients with head injuries in the ICU.

4. An adolescent patient seeks care in the emergency department after sharing needles for heroin injection with a friend who has hepatitis B. To provide immediate protection from infection, what medication will the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the immediate need is to provide passive immunity to the adolescent patient. Gamma globulin contains antibodies against hepatitis B, which can offer immediate protection. The hepatitis B vaccine provides active immunity over time but is not immediate. Fresh frozen plasma and corticosteroids are not indicated for immediate protection against hepatitis B infection. Therefore, the correct choice is Gamma globulin as it can provide immediate passive immunity against hepatitis B.

5. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing montelukast?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast, a leukotriene receptor antagonist, is primarily prescribed to prevent asthma attacks. It works by reducing inflammation and bronchoconstriction in the airways, thereby helping to control asthma symptoms and prevent exacerbations.

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