a 60 year old man presents with fatigue polyuria and polydipsia laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria what is the most likely diagnosis
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Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

2. A 65-year-old female client arrives in the emergency department with shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse accidentally administers 10 mg of morphine sulfate instead of the prescribed 4 mg. Later, the client's respiratory rate is 10 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation is 98%, and she states her pain has subsided. What is the legal status of the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because, in this scenario, the client would not be able to prove malpractice in court. Despite the nurse administering a higher dose of morphine than prescribed, the client's respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and pain relief indicate that no harm resulted from the error. Therefore, the client would not have legal grounds to pursue a malpractice case against the nurse.

3. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing montelukast?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast, a leukotriene receptor antagonist, is primarily prescribed to prevent asthma attacks. It works by reducing inflammation and bronchoconstriction in the airways, thereby helping to control asthma symptoms and prevent exacerbations.

4. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client has developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dysphagia and gastrointestinal symptoms such as hypoactive bowel sounds and a firm, distended abdomen, continuous tube feeding might exacerbate the symptoms. This can lead to complications and should be questioned by the nurse.

5. A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, jaundice, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels are classic features of primary biliary cirrhosis, an autoimmune liver disease. Hepatitis C typically presents with different symptoms and findings, such as specific viral markers. Hemochromatosis and Wilson's disease involve iron overload and copper accumulation, respectively, leading to distinct clinical and laboratory findings, which do not match the presentation described in this case.

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