a 60 year old woman presents with pruritus jaundice and xanthomas laboratory tests reveal elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels what is
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1. A 60-year-old woman presents with pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas, along with elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels, is classic for primary biliary cirrhosis. Pruritus is often the initial symptom, followed by jaundice due to cholestasis. Xanthomas, elevated cholesterol, and alkaline phosphatase levels are also common findings in primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis and pancreatic cancer may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this clinical context.

2. A 35-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 35-year-old man with fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of the skin, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels is classic for Addison's disease. These findings are consistent with primary adrenal insufficiency, where the adrenal glands fail to produce adequate cortisol. In Addison's disease, the adrenal cortex is damaged, leading to decreased cortisol production and elevated levels of ACTH. This results in symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation due to increased ACTH production stimulating melanocytes. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common electrolyte abnormalities seen in Addison's disease due to aldosterone deficiency. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is Addison's disease.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. What is the purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed to reduce ammonia levels in clients with liver cirrhosis. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which in turn traps ammonia in the colon and helps its elimination from the body through stool, thereby reducing the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. Choice A is incorrect because lactulose does not lower blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect as lactulose is not used to treat liver inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as lactulose does not improve bile flow.

4. A 56-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has severe joint pain and swelling in her hands. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease five years ago but presently has no GI symptoms. You elect to start her on an NSAID. Which of the following is correct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of peptic ulcer disease puts her at risk for NSAID-related GI toxicity. Misoprostol and proton-pump inhibitors have shown superiority over H2-blockers in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity. H. pylori infection can indeed increase the risk of an NSAID-induced ulcer in infected patients who are starting NSAID therapy. Sucralfate has not been proven to be effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is B, as misoprostol is the preferred option over an H2-blocker in this context.

5. A patient with diabetes insipidus is prescribed desmopressin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Desmopressin is prescribed to decrease urine output in patients with diabetes insipidus. It works by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, helping to control fluid balance in the body.

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