Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old woman presents with pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas, along with elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels, is classic for primary biliary cirrhosis. Pruritus is often the initial symptom, followed by jaundice due to cholestasis. Xanthomas, elevated cholesterol, and alkaline phosphatase levels are also common findings in primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis and pancreatic cancer may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this clinical context.

2. A client who participates in a health maintenance organization (HMO) needs a bone marrow transplant for the treatment of breast cancer. The client tells the nurse that she is concerned that her HMO may deny her claim. What action by the nurse best addresses the client's need at this time?

• A. Have the client's healthcare provider write a letter to the HMO explaining the need for the transplant.
• B. Help the client place a call to the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage.
• C. Encourage the client to contact a lawyer to file a lawsuit against the HMO if necessary.
• D. Have the social worker contact the state board of insurance to register a complaint against the HMO.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to help the client directly contact the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage. This approach addresses the client's immediate concerns and clarifies the situation, enabling the client to understand the coverage and potential outcomes regarding the bone marrow transplant. Choice A is not the best option as having the healthcare provider write a letter may not provide immediate clarification on coverage. Choice C is inappropriate as legal action should be considered as a last resort, and choice D involving the state board of insurance is not necessary at this initial stage of addressing the client's concern.

3. A client is being educated about type 2 diabetes. The educator can confirm that the client understands the primary treatment for type 2 diabetes when the client states what?

• A. I read that a pancreas transplant will provide a cure for my diabetes.
• B. I will take my oral antidiabetic agents when my morning blood sugar is high.
• C. I will make sure to follow the weight loss plan designed by the dietitian.
• D. I will make sure I call the diabetes educator when I have questions about my insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary treatment approach for managing type 2 diabetes includes following a weight loss plan. Weight loss can improve insulin sensitivity and glycemic control in individuals with type 2 diabetes. Making dietary changes and maintaining a healthy weight are crucial components of managing this condition.

4. Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?

• A. An adult who had a colon resection yesterday and has an IV.
• B. An older adult who has a fever of unknown origin.
• C. A woman who had an acute brain attack (stroke, CVA) 6 hours ago.
• D. A teenager with a femoral fracture who is in traction.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The OB nurse is most experienced in postoperative care, making the client who had a recent colon resection the most suitable assignment. This client would require care that aligns closely with the expertise and skills of the OB nurse, ensuring optimal patient outcomes and effective utilization of nursing resources.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works by prolonging the clotting time, which is reflected in the aPTT results. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range and not at risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (PT) (Choice A) primarily measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice B) assesses the number of platelets present in the blood and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. International normalized ratio (INR) (Choice D) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

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