Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old woman presents with pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas, along with elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels, is classic for primary biliary cirrhosis. Pruritus is often the initial symptom, followed by jaundice due to cholestasis. Xanthomas, elevated cholesterol, and alkaline phosphatase levels are also common findings in primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis and pancreatic cancer may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this clinical context.

2. What assessments should the nurse prioritize for a client with portal hypertension admitted to the medical floor?

• A. Assessment of blood pressure and evaluation for headaches and visual changes
• B. Assessment for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism
• C. Daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth
• D. Monitoring blood glucose every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In portal hypertension, daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth are crucial assessments to monitor fluid retention and ascites. These assessments help in evaluating the effectiveness of treatment and identifying any worsening of the condition, guiding appropriate interventions. Monitoring blood pressure and assessing for symptoms like headaches and visual changes may be important but are not the priority in this case. Assessing for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism is relevant in some situations but not directly related to the primary concerns of portal hypertension.

3. A 28-year-old woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents with elevated liver enzymes and pruritus. Labs reveal total bilirubin to be 4.2 mg/dL, AST 480 U/L, ALT 640 U/L, and alkaline phosphatase 232 U/L. Viral hepatitis serologies and ANA are negative. On physical examination, she is jaundiced, but has a normal blood pressure, no edema, and a soft abdomen. The fetus is in no distress. Which of the following is true?

• A. The baby should be delivered immediately
• B. Symptoms will resolve promptly after delivery
• C. There is little risk of recurrence with subsequent pregnancies
• D. The mother should be screened for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP), a condition characterized by elevated liver enzymes, pruritus, and jaundice in the absence of other liver disease causes. ICP typically resolves promptly after delivery. Immediate delivery is indicated only for fetal distress, not maternal symptoms. ICP does have a significant risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies. Treatment options for ICP include cholestyramine and ursodeoxycholic acid. Screening for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency is not indicated in this context as it is associated with acute fatty liver of pregnancy and HELLP syndrome, not ICP.

4. When a client expresses, 'I don't know how I will go on' while discussing feelings related to a recent loss, the nurse remains silent. What is the most likely reason for the nurse's behavior?

• A. The nurse is indicating disapproval of the statement.
• B. The nurse is showing respect for the client's loss.
• C. Silence is mirroring the client's sadness.
• D. Silence enables the client to contemplate what was expressed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In therapeutic communication, silence can offer the client an opportunity to process their emotions and thoughts. By remaining silent, the nurse provides a space for the client to reflect on their own words, facilitating deeper exploration and understanding of their feelings.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with severe dehydration. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg.
• C. Urine output of 20 ml/hour.
• D. Dry mucous membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A urine output of 20 ml/hour indicates severe dehydration and impaired renal function. This finding suggests a critical state where the kidneys are conserving water, leading to reduced urine output. Immediate intervention is required to restore fluid balance and prevent further complications associated with severe dehydration. Choice A, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, may indicate dehydration but is not as severe as the critically low urine output. Choice B, a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, can be seen in dehydration but is not as concerning as the extremely low urine output. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, is a common sign of dehydration but does not require immediate intervention compared to the severely reduced urine output.

Similar Questions