Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old woman presents with pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas, along with elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels, is classic for primary biliary cirrhosis. Pruritus is often the initial symptom, followed by jaundice due to cholestasis. Xanthomas, elevated cholesterol, and alkaline phosphatase levels are also common findings in primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis and pancreatic cancer may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this clinical context.

2. The client was recently diagnosed with chronic gastritis. What health practice should the nurse address when teaching the client to limit exacerbations of the disease?

• A. Perform 15 minutes of physical activity at least three times per week.
• B. Avoid taking aspirin to treat pain or fever.
• C. Take multivitamins as prescribed and eat organic foods whenever possible.
• D. Maintain a healthy body weight.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding aspirin is crucial in managing chronic gastritis as it can further irritate the stomach lining, leading to exacerbations of the condition. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase stomach acid production, potentially worsening gastritis symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client on using alternative pain or fever relief methods that are less likely to aggravate gastritis, such as acetaminophen.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Muscle rigidity.
• D. Drowsiness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity is a crucial finding to report immediately as it can indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. NMS is characterized by muscle rigidity, high fever, autonomic dysfunction, and altered mental status. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications or death.

4. A 40-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. He has a history of Crohn's disease. Laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Crohn's disease flare

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, along with the history of Crohn's disease, and the laboratory findings of low hemoglobin and elevated ESR, strongly suggest a Crohn's disease flare. These clinical manifestations are classic features of a flare-up in a patient with a known history of Crohn's disease.

5. A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding. Prothrombin time (PT) primarily assesses the extrinsic pathway and is not as sensitive to heparin therapy. Bleeding time and platelet count are not specific tests for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

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