Nursing Elites

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication as needed for pain relief.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is important for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication in treating peptic ulcer disease. Choice A ('Take the medication with food') is incorrect because omeprazole should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect as it does not align with the optimal timing for omeprazole administration. Choice D ('Take the medication as needed for pain relief') is incorrect because omeprazole is not typically used for immediate pain relief but rather for long-term management of peptic ulcer disease.

2. What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach.
• C. Discontinue the medication if you feel better.
• D. Double the dose if a dose is missed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine is to take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with meals can interfere with absorption. Patients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider as it can lead to adverse effects. Doubling the dose if a dose is missed can increase the risk of side effects and overdosage. It is crucial for patients to follow the prescribed dosing schedule and consult their healthcare provider for any concerns or missed doses.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. INR of 2.5.
• B. PTT of 45 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

4. When planning care for a 16-year-old with appendicitis presenting with right lower quadrant pain, what should the nurse prioritize as a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to decreased oral intake
• B. Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix
• C. Constipation related to decreased bowel motility and decreased fluid intake
• D. Chronic pain related to appendicitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with appendicitis is the 'Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix.' Appendicitis carries a risk of the appendix rupturing, which can lead to peritonitis, a life-threatening condition. Preventing infection through timely intervention and surgery is critical in the care of a client with appendicitis, making this nursing diagnosis the priority.

5. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being treated with lactulose. What is an expected outcome of this treatment?

• A. Reduction in blood ammonia levels
• B. Improvement in liver enzyme levels
• C. Decrease in bilirubin levels
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels through promoting its excretion via the intestines. Elevated ammonia levels contribute to the development of encephalopathy symptoms, so by lowering them, the client's neurological status can improve.

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