Nursing Elites

1. A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?

• A. I will test my blood glucose level once a week.
• B. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is 70 mg/dl.
• C. If I feel shaky, I should take another dose of insulin.
• D. It's okay to skip a meal if I'm not hungry.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Eating a snack when blood glucose is low (70 mg/dl) can help prevent hypoglycemia. It is important for clients with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels to prevent complications, and consuming a snack when glucose levels drop can help maintain the balance.

2. A client has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The client's current medication regimen includes lactulose four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements daily
• B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake
• C. Absence of nausea and vomiting
• D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used in hepatic encephalopathy to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting bowel movements. The desired outcome of lactulose therapy is typically two to three soft bowel movements daily, which helps in eliminating excess ammonia from the body, thus improving the client's condition.

3. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

• A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
• B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
• C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
• D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

4. A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of the gums, is a common side effect of phenytoin. Patients should maintain good oral hygiene to minimize this effect.

5. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Azotemia
• C. Falls
• D. Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.

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