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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?
- A. I will test my blood glucose level once a week.
- B. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is 70 mg/dl.
- C. If I feel shaky, I should take another dose of insulin.
- D. It's okay to skip a meal if I'm not hungry.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Eating a snack when blood glucose is low (70 mg/dl) can help prevent hypoglycemia. It is important for clients with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels to prevent complications, and consuming a snack when glucose levels drop can help maintain the balance.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most important to ensure client safety?
- A. Check the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
- B. Verify the client's identity and blood compatibility.
- C. Administer the blood with normal saline.
- D. Monitor the client for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's identity and blood compatibility is the most critical step in ensuring client safety during a blood transfusion. This process helps prevent transfusion reactions by confirming that the correct blood product is being administered to the right patient.
3. The patient has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan?
- A. Maintain the patient on bed rest.
- B. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours.
- C. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.
- D. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include on the care plan for a patient with a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is to encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. This is essential to decrease the risk for renal calculi associated with hypercalcemia. While bed rest is not necessary, ambulation is encouraged to help decrease the loss of calcium from the bone. Monitoring for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs is more relevant when hypocalcemia is suspected. Auscultating lung sounds every shift is a routine assessment, not required every 4 hours unless there is a specific respiratory concern.
4. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing severe pain. Which medication is likely to be prescribed?
- A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- B. Ibuprofen (Advil)
- C. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
- D. Prednisone (Deltasone)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methotrexate is commonly prescribed for rheumatoid arthritis to reduce inflammation and slow disease progression. It is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that helps control symptoms and prevent joint damage in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. While acetaminophen and ibuprofen are used for pain relief, they are not typically prescribed to address the underlying inflammation and disease progression associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Prednisone may be used for short-term symptom relief or during disease flares, but it is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis.
5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hyperactivity
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperglycemia. Risperidone (Risperdal) can lead to metabolic side effects, such as hyperglycemia, which requires monitoring. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because risperidone is not typically associated with hypertension. Choice B, Weight loss, is less common with risperidone use as it can lead to weight gain. Choice C, Hyperactivity, is not a common side effect of risperidone; instead, it is more known for sedative effects.
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