Nursing Elites

1. A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?

• A. I will test my blood glucose level once a week.
• B. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is 70 mg/dl.
• C. If I feel shaky, I should take another dose of insulin.
• D. It's okay to skip a meal if I'm not hungry.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Eating a snack when blood glucose is low (70 mg/dl) can help prevent hypoglycemia. It is important for clients with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels to prevent complications, and consuming a snack when glucose levels drop can help maintain the balance.

2. The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications by the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of spicy foods.
• B. Avoid lying down immediately after eating.
• C. Consume a high-fat diet.
• D. Drink caffeinated beverages with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding lying down immediately after eating is essential in managing GERD as it helps prevent reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to assist in keeping stomach contents down. Lying down can worsen symptoms by allowing acid to flow back into the esophagus.

3. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding should the provider expect?

• A. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter.
• B. Decreased respiratory rate.
• C. Dull percussion sounds over the lungs.
• D. Hyperresonance on chest percussion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased anteroposterior chest diameter. The increased anteroposterior chest diameter, often referred to as a barrel chest, is a common finding in clients with COPD due to hyperinflation of the lungs. This occurs because of the loss of lung elasticity and air trapping, leading to a more rounded chest shape. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased respiratory rate is not typically associated with COPD; instead, an increased respiratory rate may be seen due to the body's compensatory mechanisms. Dull percussion sounds and hyperresonance on chest percussion are not characteristic findings in COPD. Dull percussion sounds may be indicative of consolidation or pleural effusion, while hyperresonance is more commonly associated with conditions like emphysema.

5. When a client reports being allergic to penicillin, which question should the nurse ask to gather more information?

• A. Are you allergic to any other medications?
• B. How often have you taken penicillin in the past?
• C. Is anyone else in your family allergic to penicillin?
• D. What happens to you when you take penicillin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Questioning the client about the specific allergic reaction to penicillin is crucial for assessing the severity and type of allergic response, aiding in determining appropriate treatment and avoiding potential adverse reactions.

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