Nursing Elites

1. A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?

• A. I will test my blood glucose level once a week.
• B. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is 70 mg/dl.
• C. If I feel shaky, I should take another dose of insulin.
• D. It's okay to skip a meal if I'm not hungry.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Eating a snack when blood glucose is low (70 mg/dl) can help prevent hypoglycemia. It is important for clients with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels to prevent complications, and consuming a snack when glucose levels drop can help maintain the balance.

2. A 35-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Crohn's disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss strongly suggests Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations are characteristic of Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis primarily involves the colon, while irritable bowel syndrome is a functional disorder without the inflammatory component seen in Crohn's disease. Diverticulitis typically presents with localized left lower quadrant pain and is less likely to cause mouth ulcers and perianal fistulas.

3. A client has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The client's current medication regimen includes lactulose four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements daily
• B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake
• C. Absence of nausea and vomiting
• D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used in hepatic encephalopathy to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting bowel movements. The desired outcome of lactulose therapy is typically two to three soft bowel movements daily, which helps in eliminating excess ammonia from the body, thus improving the client's condition.

4. A client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is complaining of a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/minute, heart rate is 74 beats/minute, and temperature is 98.6º F. The client's fundus is firm and one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus. What action should the healthcare team implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
• B. Determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery.
• C. Assign a licensed nurse to reassess the client's vital signs.
• D. Obtain a STAT hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to implement first is to determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery. Anesthesia can be a potential cause of postpartum headaches. This information is crucial in assessing and managing the client's condition effectively before considering other interventions. It helps in identifying possible contributing factors to the client's complaint of a severe headache and guides the healthcare team in providing appropriate care and treatment.

5. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

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