Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis of the liver is experiencing pruritus. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help relieve the client's symptoms?

• A. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol).
• B. Apply lotion to the skin.
• C. Encourage a high-protein diet.
• D. Provide a warm bath.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pruritus is a common symptom in clients with cirrhosis due to bile salts accumulating in the skin. Applying lotion to the skin helps soothe the itching and can prevent skin breakdown. Acetaminophen can worsen liver damage in clients with cirrhosis as it is metabolized in the liver. Encouraging a high-protein diet is not directly related to relieving pruritus. Providing a warm bath may further dry the skin, exacerbating the itching. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention to help relieve pruritus in a client with cirrhosis is to apply lotion to the skin.

2. When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?

• A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
• B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
• C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
• D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surgical repair of hypospadias is recommended to be performed before the child is potty-trained to prevent complications. Early correction helps in achieving better outcomes and reduces the risk of issues related to urination and development of the genitalia.

3. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I will take this medication at bedtime.
• B. I need to avoid smoking while taking this medication.
• C. I should take this medication with meals.
• D. This medication will help reduce stomach acid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's statement that they should take ranitidine with meals indicates a need for further teaching. Ranitidine is typically taken at bedtime or before meals to be most effective in reducing stomach acid. Taking it with meals may not provide the optimal therapeutic effect.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with severe dehydration. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg.
• C. Urine output of 20 ml/hour.
• D. Dry mucous membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A urine output of 20 ml/hour indicates severe dehydration and impaired renal function. This finding suggests a critical state where the kidneys are conserving water, leading to reduced urine output. Immediate intervention is required to restore fluid balance and prevent further complications associated with severe dehydration. Choice A, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, may indicate dehydration but is not as severe as the critically low urine output. Choice B, a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, can be seen in dehydration but is not as concerning as the extremely low urine output. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, is a common sign of dehydration but does not require immediate intervention compared to the severely reduced urine output.

5. What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?

• A. Increase heart rate
• B. Decrease cardiac output
• C. Strengthen cardiac contractions
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digoxin, when prescribed to a patient with heart failure, primarily acts by strengthening cardiac contractions. This leads to an improvement in cardiac output, making it an essential medication in managing heart failure. By enhancing the force of contractions, digoxin helps the heart pump more effectively and efficiently, leading to better circulation and symptom control in patients with compromised cardiac function.

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