Nursing Elites

1. During an admission physical assessment, the nurse is examining a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?

• A. Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dL.
• B. Head circumference of 35 cm (14 inches).
• C. Widened, tense, bulging fontanel.
• D. High-pitched shrill cry.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A widened, tense, bulging fontanel is a critical finding in a newborn as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure. This condition requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring fontanel status is crucial in assessing the newborn's neurological well-being and ensuring early detection of potential issues.

2. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is an important teaching point for the nurse to provide?

• A. Take folic acid supplements as prescribed.
• B. Avoid alcohol completely.
• C. Expect to see immediate results.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching point for a patient prescribed methotrexate is to take folic acid supplements as prescribed. Methotrexate can lead to a folate deficiency, which is why supplementing with folic acid is essential to reduce the risk of side effects such as mouth sores, nausea, and liver problems.

3. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. She has a history of similar episodes in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding in a young woman with a history of similar episodes is highly suggestive of ulcerative colitis. This chronic inflammatory condition primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to symptoms such as bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and urgency. The recurrent nature of her symptoms and the presence of rectal bleeding further support this diagnosis over other conditions listed, such as irritable bowel syndrome, celiac disease, or diverticulitis, which typically do not present with the same combination of symptoms and history.

4. A client with liver failure is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function?

• A. Alterations in glucose metabolism
• B. Retention of bile salts
• C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes
• D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The liver's inability to use vitamin K is the most likely factor contributing to the loss of prothrombin synthesis in liver failure. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a crucial clotting factor. In liver failure, impaired utilization of vitamin K leads to decreased production of prothrombin, increasing the risk of bleeding in affected individuals.

5. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?

• A. Upper endoscopy
• B. Chest/abdominal CT scan
• C. Barium swallow
• D. Esophageal manometry

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.

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