Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Apply pressure to the injection site.
• D. Administer protamine sulfate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding. The appropriate action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. Increasing the heparin infusion rate can further elevate the aPTT, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site is not relevant in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of overdose or bleeding, but it is not the initial action for an elevated aPTT.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Creatinine clearance
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the hemoglobin level before administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) to assess its effectiveness in stimulating red blood cell production. Hemoglobin level is a crucial indicator to monitor in clients with chronic renal failure receiving this medication. Choice A (Blood urea nitrogen) and Choice B (Creatinine clearance) are commonly monitored in renal failure but are not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Choice D (Serum potassium) is important to monitor due to potential imbalances in renal failure, but it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

3. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fruity breath odor.
• B. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL.
• C. Deep, rapid respirations.
• D. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.

4. A client has been diagnosed with an esophageal diverticulum after undergoing diagnostic imaging. When taking the health history, the nurse should expect the client to describe what sign or symptom?

• A. Burning pain on swallowing
• B. Regurgitation of undigested food
• C. Symptoms mimicking a myocardial infarction
• D. Chronic parotid abscesses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Regurgitation of undigested food is a typical symptom of esophageal diverticulum. This condition forms a pouch in the esophagus that can trap food, leading to regurgitation of undigested food. The other options are not typically associated with esophageal diverticulum.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg, the healthcare professional should administer 2 tablets of 0.125 mg each, totaling 0.25 mg.

Similar Questions