Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. The cancer involves only the cervix.
• B. The cancer cells closely resemble normal cells.
• C. Further testing is necessary to determine the spread of the cancer.
• D. Determining the original site of the cervical cancer is challenging.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'The cancer involves only the cervix.' In staging, 'Tis' indicates cancer in situ, which means it is localized to the cervix and not invasive at this time. The differentiation of cancer cells is not part of clinical staging. Since the cancer is in situ, its origin is the cervix. Further testing is not required as the cancer has not spread beyond the cervix. Choice B is incorrect as the staging information provided does not relate to the resemblance of cancer cells to normal cells. Choice C is incorrect because further testing is not necessary as the cancer is localized. Choice D is incorrect because the staging information provided clearly indicates the site of origin as the cervix.

2. A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of the gums, is a common side effect of phenytoin. Patients should maintain good oral hygiene to minimize this effect.

3. The mental health nurse observes that a female client with delusional disorder carries some of her belongings with her because she believes that others are trying to steal them. Which nursing action will promote trust?

• A. Explain that distrust is related to feeling anxious.
• B. Initiate short, frequent contacts with the client.
• C. Explain that these beliefs are related to her illness.
• D. Offer to keep the belongings at the nurse's desk.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating short, frequent contacts with the client is the most appropriate action to promote trust. This approach helps build trust and rapport, addressing the client's need for security. By maintaining regular contact, the nurse can provide reassurance and support, which can help alleviate the client's anxiety related to her delusional beliefs. Choice A does not directly address the client's need for trust and security. Choice C focuses on the client's illness but does not actively address building trust. Choice D, offering to keep the belongings at the nurse's desk, may not be well-received by the client and could potentially worsen her anxiety and distrust.

4. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
• B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
• C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
• D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.

Similar Questions