a 28 year old woman presents with abdominal pain diarrhea and rectal bleeding she has a history of similar episodes in the past what is the most likel
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1. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. She has a history of similar episodes in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding in a young woman with a history of similar episodes is highly suggestive of ulcerative colitis. This chronic inflammatory condition primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to symptoms such as bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and urgency. The recurrent nature of her symptoms and the presence of rectal bleeding further support this diagnosis over other conditions listed, such as irritable bowel syndrome, celiac disease, or diverticulitis, which typically do not present with the same combination of symptoms and history.

2. A 35-year-old man presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food. A barium swallow shows a 'bird beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The 'bird beak' appearance on a barium swallow is characteristic of achalasia, a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax properly. This leads to difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food, which are hallmark symptoms of achalasia.

3. The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clear lung sounds indicate that the antibiotics are effectively treating the bacterial pneumonia by resolving the infection and reducing the inflammation in the lungs, leading to improved air exchange and ventilation. Increased respiratory rate (Choice A) and decreased oxygen saturation (Choice B) are indicative of ongoing respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (Choice D) suggests a persistent infection rather than effective treatment.

4. An elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this client's comment, what previous lab values should the nurse compare with today's lab report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client increases their daily doses of acetaminophen for joint pain, it raises concerns about possible liver damage due to acetaminophen overdose. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) levels can indicate liver function, so comparing today's levels with previous ones can help assess for liver damage caused by acetaminophen overuse.

5. A patient with gout is prescribed allopurinol. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient prescribed allopurinol for gout, the nurse should emphasize taking the medication with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset. It is important to instruct the patient to maintain adequate hydration by consuming plenty of fluids, preferably water, to help prevent kidney stone formation and facilitate the drug's effectiveness. Allopurinol does not provide immediate pain relief but rather works to lower uric acid levels over time, reducing the frequency of gout attacks. Choices B and C are incorrect as increasing high-purine foods can exacerbate gout symptoms, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not recommended for gout patients who should maintain good hydration. Choice D is incorrect because allopurinol does not offer immediate pain relief.

Similar Questions

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