Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is at risk for which of the following conditions?

• A. Liver cirrhosis
• B. Renal failure
• C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
• D. Peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to liver cirrhosis due to long-term liver damage. Alcohol consumption over time can cause inflammation and scarring of the liver, eventually leading to cirrhosis. This condition can severely impact liver function and may progress to liver failure if not addressed.

2. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. Warfarin affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial to assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine if the patient is within the desired anticoagulation range to prevent either clotting issues or excessive bleeding.

3. Your patient has an order to receive Levothyroxine Sodium 75 mcg daily IV. You have a vial containing 100 mcg available from the pharmacy. According to the package insert, 5 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is needed to reconstitute. You add the appropriate amount of sodium chloride to the vial. How many mcg of medication are in 1 mL of the vial?

• A. 20 mcg
• B. 15 mcg
• C. 25 mcg
• D. 30 mcg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of Levothyroxine Sodium in the vial is 100 mcg in 5 mL, which equals 20 mcg/mL. Therefore, in 1 mL of the vial, there are 20 mcg of medication.

4. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?

• A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
• B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
• C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
• D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.

5. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
• B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
• C. Kayexalate retention enema.
• D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.

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