a nurse is caring for a client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse the client is at risk for which of the following conditions
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is at risk for which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to liver cirrhosis due to long-term liver damage. Alcohol consumption over time can cause inflammation and scarring of the liver, eventually leading to cirrhosis. This condition can severely impact liver function and may progress to liver failure if not addressed.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, serum amylase is a crucial laboratory value to monitor closely. Elevated levels of serum amylase are a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation and can help confirm the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, monitoring serum amylase levels is essential for assessing the progression and severity of the condition in a client with acute pancreatitis.

3. During a home visit, the nurse should evaluate the adequacy of a client's COPD treatment by assessing for which primary symptom?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea is crucial when evaluating COPD treatment effectiveness as it is a primary symptom of the condition. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common and distressing symptom in COPD patients. Monitoring the severity of dyspnea can provide valuable insights into the client's response to treatment and disease progression.

4. What health promotion teaching should prioritize to prevent drug-induced hepatitis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adhering to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics is crucial in preventing drug-induced hepatitis. Overdosing on analgesics can lead to liver damage, making it essential to follow the recommended dosages to reduce the risk of hepatotoxicity.

5. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

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