Nursing Elites

1. A 32-year-old woman presents with a 10-month history of an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium that is sometimes related to eating. She has heard about bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has had no change in her weight and denies dysphagia. Her laboratory tests are normal. Which of the following would you recommend?

• A. Serum qualitative test for H. pylori
• B. Refer for endoscopy
• C. Obtain an upper GI series
• D. Treat her for H. pylori infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient presents with dyspepsia, described as an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium, sometimes related to eating. In individuals under 45 years without warning signs such as anemia, weight loss, or dysphagia, a serum qualitative test for H. pylori is recommended to document H. pylori infection, especially if the patient has not been previously treated. It's important to note that a serum IgG can remain positive post-eradication. If H. pylori-positive patients do not respond to treatment, an endoscopy would be the next step for evaluation. An upper GI series is less sensitive than endoscopy in detecting lesions of the upper GI tract and cannot specifically detect H. pylori. Empiric therapy for H. pylori without confirmation is not recommended.

2. The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?

• A. Drowsiness.
• B. Itching.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression, a life-threatening side effect of opioid therapy. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring and managing respiratory status are critical in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not as immediately life-threatening as severe respiratory depression.

3. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

• A. Pain during coughing.
• B. Diminished cough effort.
• C. Thick, dry secretions.
• D. Excessive inflammation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

4. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
• B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
• C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
• D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.

5. In a 45-year-old woman with a history of arthritis experiencing severe heartburn and indigestion refractory to antacids, which findings on an esophageal manometry study are consistent with her diagnosis?

• A. Vigorous peristalsis and elevated lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure
• B. Absent peristalsis and elevated LES pressure
• C. Absent peristalsis and decreased LES pressure
• D. Vigorous peristalsis and decreased LES pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absent peristalsis and decreased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. The patient in this scenario has scleroderma esophagus, characterized by atrophy of esophageal smooth muscle, leading to the loss of peristalsis and LES tone. These changes contribute to severe symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and esophagitis. Absent peristalsis and decreased LES pressure are typical findings in scleroderma esophagus, contributing to the refractory nature of the patient's symptoms despite antacid use.

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