ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. During an assessment, a healthcare professional suspects a client has cholecystitis. What is a common symptom of this condition?
- A. Right upper quadrant pain
- B. Left lower quadrant pain
- C. Generalized abdominal pain
- D. Epigastric pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Right upper quadrant pain is a hallmark symptom of cholecystitis, indicating inflammation of the gallbladder. The gallbladder is typically located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is characteristic of cholecystitis. This pain may be sharp or cramp-like and can be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and fever. Left lower quadrant pain (choice B) is more commonly associated with diverticulitis, generalized abdominal pain (choice C) can be seen in various conditions, and epigastric pain (choice D) is typically related to issues in the upper central part of the abdomen, such as gastritis or peptic ulcers, rather than cholecystitis.
2. The sister of a patient diagnosed with BRCA gene-related breast cancer asks the nurse, 'Do you think I should be tested for the gene?' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. In most cases, breast cancer is not caused by the BRCA gene.
- B. It depends on how you will feel if the test is positive for the BRCA gene.
- C. There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.
- D. You should decide first whether you are willing to have a bilateral mastectomy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is C: 'There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.' Genetic testing for BRCA gene mutations is a complex decision that involves various factors such as emotional readiness, potential impact on insurance and employability, and the implications of test results. Option A is incorrect because although most breast cancers are not related to BRCA gene mutations, individuals with these mutations have a significantly higher risk. Option B is not ideal as it oversimplifies the decision-making process by focusing solely on emotional aspects. Option D is incorrect as it implies a predetermined course of action (mastectomy) before even undergoing genetic testing, which is not appropriate.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
- B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
- D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, with the client's apical pulse being 58 beats/minute, holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider is the correct action. A low pulse rate may indicate bradycardia and may necessitate dose adjustment or further evaluation by the healthcare provider to prevent potential complications.
4. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What symptom should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?
- A. Joint pain
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Loss of sensation
- D. Severe headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, especially in the voluntary muscles. Patients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience weakness in muscles that control eye movements, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking. This weakness typically worsens with activity and improves with rest. Joint pain, loss of sensation, and severe headaches are not typical symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Therefore, the correct answer is muscle weakness (choice B) as it aligns with the characteristic symptom of myasthenia gravis.
5. While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?
- A. Continue the magnesium sulfate infusion as prescribed.
- B. Decrease the magnesium sulfate infusion by one-half.
- C. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately.
- D. Administer calcium gluconate immediately.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately in a client with preeclampsia exhibiting diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, and low urinary output, which indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. This action is crucial to prevent further complications and adverse effects on the client.
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