Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding. Prothrombin time (PT) primarily assesses the extrinsic pathway and is not as sensitive to heparin therapy. Bleeding time and platelet count are not specific tests for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

2. A 55-year-old man presents with jaundice, pruritus, and dark urine. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of jaundice, pruritus, dark urine, elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase, along with imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that leads to destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts, causing cholestasis and liver damage. This condition typically presents in middle-aged women but can also affect men, as seen in this case.

3. The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
• B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
• C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
• D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.

4. A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?

• A. The client's extremities are paralyzed.
• B. The peripheral nerve stimulator causes twitching.
• C. The client clenches fist upon command.
• D. The client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 14.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tubocurarine chloride is a neuromuscular blocker that works by causing paralysis of skeletal muscles. Therefore, if the client's extremities are paralyzed, it indicates that the medication is effective in achieving the desired muscle relaxation necessary for mechanical ventilation. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest muscle activity, which would not be expected with the administration of a neuromuscular blocker. Choice D is unrelated to the effectiveness of tubocurarine chloride.

5. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL.
• B. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) of 200 mg/dL.
• C. Triglycerides of 150 mg/dL.
• D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 40 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An LDL level of 200 mg/dL is significantly elevated and requires immediate intervention to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). High LDL levels contribute to the development and progression of atherosclerosis, which can lead to complications like heart attacks and strokes. Lowering LDL levels is a key goal in managing CAD and preventing further cardiovascular damage. Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL, triglycerides of 150 mg/dL, and HDL of 40 mg/dL are within acceptable ranges and do not pose an immediate risk that necessitates urgent intervention.

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