Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding. Prothrombin time (PT) primarily assesses the extrinsic pathway and is not as sensitive to heparin therapy. Bleeding time and platelet count are not specific tests for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

2. A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?

• A. With meals
• B. At bedtime
• C. Before meals
• D. After meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole is best taken before meals for optimal effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and promoting ulcer healing. Taking it before meals allows the medication to act on the proton pumps before food intake triggers acid production, thereby maximizing its therapeutic benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals, at bedtime, or after meals may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially reducing its effectiveness in managing peptic ulcer disease.

3. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Use this medication for acute asthma attacks.
• B. Use this medication before using your albuterol inhaler.
• C. Use this medication twice daily for long-term control.
• D. Use this medication as needed for wheezing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.

4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis. Which type of diet should the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. High-fiber, low-fat diet
• B. Low-fiber, high-protein diet
• C. Low-fat, low-cholesterol diet
• D. High-protein, high-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cholecystitis, a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is recommended to manage symptoms and reduce inflammation by reducing the workload on the gallbladder. This diet helps prevent gallbladder attacks and complications.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Creatinine clearance
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the hemoglobin level before administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) to assess its effectiveness in stimulating red blood cell production. Hemoglobin level is a crucial indicator to monitor in clients with chronic renal failure receiving this medication. Choice A (Blood urea nitrogen) and Choice B (Creatinine clearance) are commonly monitored in renal failure but are not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Choice D (Serum potassium) is important to monitor due to potential imbalances in renal failure, but it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

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