Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding. Prothrombin time (PT) primarily assesses the extrinsic pathway and is not as sensitive to heparin therapy. Bleeding time and platelet count are not specific tests for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

2. What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?

• A. Increase heart rate
• B. Reduce blood pressure
• C. Lower cholesterol levels
• D. Decrease blood sugar levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. This medication does not increase heart rate, lower cholesterol levels, or decrease blood sugar levels.

3. When a client reports being allergic to penicillin, which question should the nurse ask to gather more information?

• A. Are you allergic to any other medications?
• B. How often have you taken penicillin in the past?
• C. Is anyone else in your family allergic to penicillin?
• D. What happens to you when you take penicillin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Questioning the client about the specific allergic reaction to penicillin is crucial for assessing the severity and type of allergic response, aiding in determining appropriate treatment and avoiding potential adverse reactions.

4. When assessing a client reporting severe pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, which sign would most likely indicate appendicitis?

• A. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point.
• B. Positive Murphy's sign.
• C. Rovsing's sign.
• D. Cullen's sign.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This sign indicates peritoneal irritation, a common feature of appendicitis. McBurney's point is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen and is a focal point for assessing tenderness. Positive Murphy's sign is associated with cholecystitis, not appendicitis. Rovsing's sign is elicited by palpation of the left lower quadrant resulting in pain in the right lower quadrant, also suggestive of appendicitis. Cullen's sign is associated with acute pancreatitis and manifests as periumbilical ecchymosis.

5. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

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