Nursing Elites

1. A 50-year-old man presents with progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus. Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Pancreatic cancer
• B. Chronic pancreatitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus along with a pancreatic mass, particularly in the head of the pancreas, strongly suggests pancreatic cancer as the most likely diagnosis. These symptoms are classic for obstructive jaundice caused by a mass in the head of the pancreas, making pancreatic cancer the most fitting choice.

2. The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
• B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
• C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
• D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.

3. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
• B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
• C. Kayexalate retention enema.
• D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.

4. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?

• A. Typically requires colonic resection
• B. Affects the watershed areas of the colon, namely, the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum
• C. Is only seen in the elderly
• D. Requires colonoscopic intervention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.

5. A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Headache.
• B. Fever.
• C. Nuchal rigidity.
• D. Seizures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizures in a client with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure or other complications requiring immediate intervention. Seizures can lead to further neurological damage and need prompt management to prevent adverse outcomes. Therefore, addressing seizures promptly is crucial in the care of a client with suspected meningitis.

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