ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 6 liters/minute if the client is short of breath.
- B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough frequently.
- C. Use a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate.
- D. Encourage the client to remove the oxygen when eating or drinking.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the appropriate intervention for clients with COPD receiving oxygen therapy. High flow rates can lead to respiratory depression in COPD patients. This intervention helps maintain a safe and controlled oxygen delivery to prevent potential complications associated with high oxygen flow rates.
2. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
- C. Take the medication with meals.
- D. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with metformin. Patients should also be educated about the signs of lactic acidosis, a rare but serious side effect associated with metformin use.
3. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?
- A. Diverticular bleed
- B. Duodenal ulcer
- C. Inflammatory bowel disease
- D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.
4. The healthcare provider is planning care for a non-potty-trained child with nephrotic syndrome. Which intervention provides the best means of determining fluid retention?
- A. Weigh the child daily.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for pitting edema.
- C. Measure the child's abdominal girth weekly.
- D. Weigh the child's wet diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Daily weighing is the most accurate method to monitor fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome. Changes in weight can indicate fluid retention or loss, which is crucial in managing nephrotic syndrome. Observing for pitting edema and measuring abdominal girth are also important assessments, but daily weighing provides more immediate and precise information about fluid status.
5. A client with osteoporosis is being discharged home. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
- B. Take calcium supplements with meals.
- C. Limit vitamin D intake.
- D. Increase intake of caffeine-containing beverages.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Taking calcium supplements with meals is a crucial instruction for a client with osteoporosis. Calcium absorption is enhanced when taken with food, and proper calcium intake is essential for managing osteoporosis effectively by promoting bone health and density. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (Choice A) is incorrect because these exercises help improve bone strength. Limiting vitamin D intake (Choice C) is also incorrect as vitamin D is necessary for calcium absorption. Increasing caffeine intake (Choice D) is not recommended as caffeine can interfere with calcium absorption.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access