a patient with chronic kidney disease ckd is receiving erythropoietin therapy what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiv
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. In a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in patients with chronic kidney disease who often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Monitoring the hemoglobin level is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy as an increase in hemoglobin indicates improved red blood cell production and better management of anemia in these patients. Serum creatinine, white blood cell count, and serum potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in CKD patients but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for managing anemia.

2. The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension are classic clinical manifestations of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol production. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, leading to increased melanin synthesis. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, causing sodium loss and volume depletion.

3. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.

4. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

5. A client with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Levothyroxine is typically a lifelong therapy for hypothyroidism. It should not be discontinued even if symptoms improve because the medication helps replace the deficient thyroid hormone. Stopping the medication prematurely can lead to a recurrence of symptoms and potential complications. Patients must understand the importance of continuous levothyroxine therapy and the necessity of regular follow-up with their healthcare provider to monitor thyroid levels and adjust the dosage as needed.

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