Nursing Elites

1. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?

• A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
• B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
• C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
• D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen post-CVA, continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy may exacerbate abdominal distension and hypoactive bowel sounds. This situation requires immediate assessment and reevaluation before continuing with the prescription.

2. The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
• B. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension.
• C. Exophthalmos and tachycardia.
• D. Weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension are classic clinical manifestations of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol production. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, leading to increased melanin synthesis. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, causing sodium loss and volume depletion.

3. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is an important teaching point for the nurse to provide?

• A. Take folic acid supplements as prescribed.
• B. Avoid alcohol completely.
• C. Expect to see immediate results.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching point for a patient prescribed methotrexate is to take folic acid supplements as prescribed. Methotrexate can lead to a folate deficiency, which is why supplementing with folic acid is essential to reduce the risk of side effects such as mouth sores, nausea, and liver problems.

4. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.

5. What should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of enoxaparin in a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The international normalized ratio (INR) is the appropriate parameter to monitor the effectiveness of enoxaparin in preventing clot formation in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). INR reflects the clotting ability of the blood and is commonly used to assess the therapeutic range of anticoagulant medications, such as enoxaparin, which is crucial in managing and preventing thrombotic events like DVT.

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