Nursing Elites

1. Which problem in a client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Finger paresthesias related to carpal tunnel syndrome.
• B. Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome.
• C. Increasing burning pain related to a Morton's neuroma.
• D. Increasing sharp pain related to plantar fasciitis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment compromises circulation and can lead to tissue damage. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent permanent damage to muscles and nerves, including tissue necrosis and nerve injury. Choices A, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency as compartment syndrome, making them less critical for immediate intervention. Carpal tunnel syndrome, Morton's neuroma, and plantar fasciitis may cause discomfort and functional limitations but are not typically considered emergencies requiring urgent intervention like compartment syndrome.

2. When assessing a client reporting severe pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, which sign would most likely indicate appendicitis?

• A. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point.
• B. Positive Murphy's sign.
• C. Rovsing's sign.
• D. Cullen's sign.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This sign indicates peritoneal irritation, a common feature of appendicitis. McBurney's point is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen and is a focal point for assessing tenderness. Positive Murphy's sign is associated with cholecystitis, not appendicitis. Rovsing's sign is elicited by palpation of the left lower quadrant resulting in pain in the right lower quadrant, also suggestive of appendicitis. Cullen's sign is associated with acute pancreatitis and manifests as periumbilical ecchymosis.

3. What assessments should the nurse prioritize for a client with portal hypertension admitted to the medical floor?

• A. Assessment of blood pressure and evaluation for headaches and visual changes
• B. Assessment for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism
• C. Daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth
• D. Monitoring blood glucose every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In portal hypertension, daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth are crucial assessments to monitor fluid retention and ascites. These assessments help in evaluating the effectiveness of treatment and identifying any worsening of the condition, guiding appropriate interventions. Monitoring blood pressure and assessing for symptoms like headaches and visual changes may be important but are not the priority in this case. Assessing for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism is relevant in some situations but not directly related to the primary concerns of portal hypertension.

4. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Eat a light breakfast on the day of the procedure.
• B. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure.
• C. Avoid all liquids for 24 hours before the procedure.
• D. You can continue taking your blood thinners until the day of the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client scheduled for a colonoscopy is to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure. This solution helps cleanse the colon, ensuring clear visualization during the colonoscopy procedure. Choice A is incorrect because a light breakfast is usually recommended the day before the procedure, not on the day of the colonoscopy. Choice C is incorrect as it is important to stay hydrated and follow specific instructions regarding liquid intake. Choice D is incorrect as blood thinners may need to be adjusted or stopped before the colonoscopy to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure.

5. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Alendronate
• C. Iron sulfate
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

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