ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. Which problem in a client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Finger paresthesias related to carpal tunnel syndrome.
- B. Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome.
- C. Increasing burning pain related to a Morton's neuroma.
- D. Increasing sharp pain related to plantar fasciitis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment compromises circulation and can lead to tissue damage. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent permanent damage to muscles and nerves, including tissue necrosis and nerve injury. Choices A, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency as compartment syndrome, making them less critical for immediate intervention. Carpal tunnel syndrome, Morton's neuroma, and plantar fasciitis may cause discomfort and functional limitations but are not typically considered emergencies requiring urgent intervention like compartment syndrome.
2. A client with liver cirrhosis and ascites is being treated with spironolactone. What is a key nursing consideration for this medication?
- A. Monitoring for signs of hyperkalemia
- B. Checking for signs of hypoglycemia
- C. Assessing for signs of dehydration
- D. Observing for symptoms of hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as it helps retain potassium in the body. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hyperkalemia such as muscle weakness, arrhythmias, or ECG changes is crucial to prevent potential complications.
3. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.
4. A patient with gout is prescribed allopurinol. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase intake of high-purine foods.
- C. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- D. Expect immediate pain relief.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a patient prescribed allopurinol for gout, the nurse should emphasize taking the medication with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset. It is important to instruct the patient to maintain adequate hydration by consuming plenty of fluids, preferably water, to help prevent kidney stone formation and facilitate the drug's effectiveness. Allopurinol does not provide immediate pain relief but rather works to lower uric acid levels over time, reducing the frequency of gout attacks. Choices B and C are incorrect as increasing high-purine foods can exacerbate gout symptoms, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not recommended for gout patients who should maintain good hydration. Choice D is incorrect because allopurinol does not offer immediate pain relief.
5. A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I know it may take several weeks before I start feeling better.
- B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. I will stop taking the medication as soon as I feel better.
- D. I should take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping antidepressants abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and complete the full course of medication even if they start feeling better to prevent potential relapse or withdrawal effects.
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