a client with which problem requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. Which problem in a client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment compromises circulation and can lead to tissue damage. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent permanent damage to muscles and nerves, including tissue necrosis and nerve injury. Choices A, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency as compartment syndrome, making them less critical for immediate intervention. Carpal tunnel syndrome, Morton's neuroma, and plantar fasciitis may cause discomfort and functional limitations but are not typically considered emergencies requiring urgent intervention like compartment syndrome.

2. After a client's neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the superior laryngeal nerve, what area of assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve can lead to swallowing difficulties due to impaired laryngeal function. As a result, assessing the client's swallowing ability is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure proper nutrition and hydration.

3. The client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should be made?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Engaging in at least 150 minutes of moderate exercise per week is a key lifestyle modification recommended for individuals with hypertension. Regular exercise helps manage blood pressure, improve cardiovascular health, and overall well-being. It is important for the client to adopt a healthy lifestyle to control hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.

4. The community health nurse is working in a multi-ethnic health center. In what situation should the nurse intervene?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because losing weight in an infant, especially when combined with spitting up milk, requires immediate intervention to address potential health concerns. Choice A deals with a cultural practice that may not necessarily pose an immediate health risk. Choice B, while important, does not present an immediate health threat. Choice C relates to cultural differences in communication and does not necessarily indicate a need for immediate intervention in terms of health.

5. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

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