ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. After undergoing rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture from a fight, what area of care should the nurse prioritize for discharge education for this client?
- A. Resumption of activities of daily living
- B. Pain control
- C. Promotion of adequate nutrition
- D. Strategies for promoting adequate nutrition
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is promoting adequate nutrition. Following rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture, the client may have limitations in jaw movement, which can affect their ability to eat properly. Prioritizing education on promoting adequate nutrition will help ensure the client's nutritional needs are met during the recovery period.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most important to ensure client safety?
- A. Check the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
- B. Verify the client's identity and blood compatibility.
- C. Administer the blood with normal saline.
- D. Monitor the client for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's identity and blood compatibility is the most critical step in ensuring client safety during a blood transfusion. This process helps prevent transfusion reactions by confirming that the correct blood product is being administered to the right patient.
3. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- B. Weight gain of 2 pounds since the last dialysis session.
- C. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dl.
- D. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, which can lead to severe cardiac complications like arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to lower potassium levels to prevent life-threatening outcomes in clients undergoing hemodialysis.
4. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?
- A. High Fowler's position.
- B. Supine position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Sims' position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.
5. When providing dietary instructions to a client with cirrhosis, which dietary restriction is important for the nurse to emphasize?
- A. Low-protein diet
- B. Low-sodium diet
- C. High-fiber diet
- D. High-calcium diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-sodium diet is crucial for clients with cirrhosis to manage fluid retention and ascites. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation in the body, leading to complications. By restricting sodium intake, the client can help reduce fluid retention and maintain better overall health. Therefore, emphasizing a low-sodium diet is essential in the dietary management of cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not the primary focus for cirrhosis management. While protein restriction may be necessary in advanced stages of liver disease, it is not the main dietary concern in cirrhosis. High-fiber and high-calcium diets are generally beneficial for overall health but are not specifically emphasized in cirrhosis management.
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