a patient has a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion she has undergone an extensive gi work up including upp
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1. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.

2. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. What intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the NG tube?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees is crucial in preventing aspiration, a common complication associated with nasogastric (NG) tubes and enteral feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, promoting client safety and preventing respiratory complications. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after feedings (Choice A) is not the primary intervention to prevent complications. Checking gastric residual volume every 6 hours (Choice B) is important but not directly related to preventing complications associated with the NG tube. Replacing the NG tube every 24 hours (Choice D) is not a standard practice and is not necessary to prevent complications if the tube is functioning properly.

3. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.

4. A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin. It is designed to provide a consistent level of insulin over approximately 24 hours, helping to keep blood glucose levels stable throughout the day. This long duration of action makes it suitable for basal insulin replacement in patients with type 1 diabetes, providing a background level of insulin to mimic the body's natural release of insulin between meals and overnight.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. What is the purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed to reduce ammonia levels in clients with liver cirrhosis. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which in turn traps ammonia in the colon and helps its elimination from the body through stool, thereby reducing the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. Choice A is incorrect because lactulose does not lower blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect as lactulose is not used to treat liver inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as lactulose does not improve bile flow.

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