ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
- B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
- C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
- D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a direct and assertive approach that can help de-escalate the situation safely. It sets clear boundaries and expectations for the client's behavior, which may help reduce agitation and aggression in this scenario. Offering a day pass if the client calms down (Choice A) might reinforce the aggressive behavior. Putting the client's behavior on extinction (Choice B) involves not reinforcing the behavior, but it may not directly address the immediate safety concern. Decreasing the volume on the television set (Choice C) does not address the client's behavior directly and may not effectively manage the escalating situation.
2. When providing dietary instructions to a client with cirrhosis, which dietary restriction is important for the nurse to emphasize?
- A. Low-protein diet
- B. Low-sodium diet
- C. High-fiber diet
- D. High-calcium diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-sodium diet is crucial for clients with cirrhosis to manage fluid retention and ascites. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation in the body, leading to complications. By restricting sodium intake, the client can help reduce fluid retention and maintain better overall health. Therefore, emphasizing a low-sodium diet is essential in the dietary management of cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not the primary focus for cirrhosis management. While protein restriction may be necessary in advanced stages of liver disease, it is not the main dietary concern in cirrhosis. High-fiber and high-calcium diets are generally beneficial for overall health but are not specifically emphasized in cirrhosis management.
3. A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Bounding erratic pulse.
- B. Regularly irregular pulse.
- C. Thready irregular pulse.
- D. No palpable pulse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, asynchronous contractions of the ventricles, resulting in ineffective cardiac output. This leads to the absence of a palpable pulse. Nurses should be prepared to initiate immediate interventions such as defibrillation to restore normal cardiac rhythm in a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
- B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
- C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
- D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct pre-procedure instruction the nurse should provide to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for a renal biopsy is to avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This instruction is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure, as anticoagulants can increase the chance of bleeding complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining a low-protein diet, drinking plenty of fluids, or taking routine medications with water are not specifically related to reducing the risk of bleeding associated with a renal biopsy in a client with CKD.
5. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?
- A. High Fowler's position.
- B. Supine position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Sims' position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.
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