ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. The nurse should recognize that which intervention is most critical in promoting healing of the foot ulcer?
- A. Strict control of blood glucose levels.
- B. Regular dressing changes with sterile technique.
- C. Application of antibiotic ointment.
- D. Hydrotherapy treatment daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In diabetic clients with foot ulcers, strict control of blood glucose levels is essential for promoting wound healing. High blood glucose levels can impair circulation and compromise the body's ability to fight infection, delaying the healing process. By maintaining optimal blood glucose levels, the client's overall health and wound healing potential are improved.
2. A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Fever and chills.
- C. Increased urine output.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction. These symptoms indicate that the body is having a response to the transfused blood, possibly due to incompatibility or an immune reaction. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic signs of a transfusion reaction. It is crucial to recognize symptoms of a transfusion reaction promptly to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management.
3. What nursing intervention can help alleviate pruritus in a client with cirrhosis?
- A. Administering antihistamines
- B. Providing a high-protein diet
- C. Applying emollients to the skin
- D. Encouraging frequent baths with hot water
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying emollients to the skin can help alleviate pruritus in clients with cirrhosis. Emollients help soothe and moisturize the skin, reducing the discomfort associated with itching.
4. A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?
- A. The client's extremities are paralyzed.
- B. The peripheral nerve stimulator causes twitching.
- C. The client clenches fist upon command.
- D. The client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 14.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tubocurarine chloride is a neuromuscular blocker that works by causing paralysis of skeletal muscles. Therefore, if the client's extremities are paralyzed, it indicates that the medication is effective in achieving the desired muscle relaxation necessary for mechanical ventilation. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest muscle activity, which would not be expected with the administration of a neuromuscular blocker. Choice D is unrelated to the effectiveness of tubocurarine chloride.
5. A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. Bleeding time
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding. Prothrombin time (PT) primarily assesses the extrinsic pathway and is not as sensitive to heparin therapy. Bleeding time and platelet count are not specific tests for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.
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