a client with left sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symp
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.

2. A 65-year-old woman presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and a history of long-standing heartburn. She has been on proton-pump inhibitors for years, but her symptoms have worsened. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and worsening symptoms despite long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors raises suspicion for esophageal cancer, especially in a patient with a history of chronic heartburn. Esophageal cancer should be considered in this scenario due to the concerning symptoms and lack of improvement despite appropriate medical management.

3. After undergoing rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture from a fight, what area of care should the nurse prioritize for discharge education for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is promoting adequate nutrition. Following rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture, the client may have limitations in jaw movement, which can affect their ability to eat properly. Prioritizing education on promoting adequate nutrition will help ensure the client's nutritional needs are met during the recovery period.

4. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. Warfarin affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial to assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine if the patient is within the desired anticoagulation range to prevent either clotting issues or excessive bleeding.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, in a client with chronic renal failure, an effective outcome of epoetin alfa therapy would be an improvement in hemoglobin levels. This indicates that the medication is working as intended by addressing anemia, a common complication of chronic renal failure. Increased urine output (choice A) is not directly related to the action of epoetin alfa. Decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a primary expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Stable potassium levels (choice D) are important but not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in this context.

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