ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?
- A. High Fowler's position.
- B. Supine position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Sims' position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.
2. A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic heartburn presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. He has lost 10 pounds in the past two months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Esophageal stricture
- B. Esophageal cancer
- C. Achalasia
- D. Peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, along with significant weight loss, is concerning for esophageal cancer. The history of chronic heartburn further raises suspicion as chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease is a risk factor for the development of esophageal adenocarcinoma. Esophageal stricture could cause dysphagia but is less likely to be associated with significant weight loss. Achalasia typically presents with dysphagia to solids more than liquids and does not commonly cause weight loss. Peptic ulcer disease is less likely to lead to progressive dysphagia and significant weight loss compared to esophageal cancer.
3. What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Reduce blood pressure
- C. Lower cholesterol levels
- D. Decrease blood sugar levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. This medication does not increase heart rate, lower cholesterol levels, or decrease blood sugar levels.
4. A client with a newly created ileostomy has not had ostomy output for the past 12 hours and reports worsening nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Facilitate a referral to the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse
- B. Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the health care provider
- C. Encourage the client to mobilize to enhance mobility
- D. Contact the health care provider to obtain a swab of the stoma for culture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action in this situation is to report signs and symptoms of possible obstruction to the healthcare provider. Lack of ostomy output and worsening nausea can indicate a potential obstruction, which requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent complications.
5. A male client is admitted to the neurological unit. He has just sustained a C-5 spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding of this client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Is unable to feel sensation in the arms and hands.
- B. Has flaccid upper and lower extremities.
- C. Blood pressure is 110/70 and the apical pulse is 68.
- D. Respirations are shallow, labored, and 14 breaths/minute.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Respirations that are shallow, labored, and at 14 breaths/minute indicate potential respiratory compromise, which is a critical situation requiring immediate intervention to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory failure.
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