a client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink frothy sputum which action should the nurse t
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion, ease breathing, and enhance oxygenation by reducing venous return and decreasing preload on the heart. It is crucial to address the client's respiratory distress promptly before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice A) may be appropriate later to relieve anxiety and reduce the work of breathing, but positioning is the priority. Continuous ECG monitoring (choice C) and preparing for intubation (choice D) are important but secondary to addressing the respiratory distress and optimizing oxygenation.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, with the client's apical pulse being 58 beats/minute, holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider is the correct action. A low pulse rate may indicate bradycardia and may necessitate dose adjustment or further evaluation by the healthcare provider to prevent potential complications.

4. A client has been diagnosed with an esophageal diverticulum after undergoing diagnostic imaging. When taking the health history, the nurse should expect the client to describe what sign or symptom?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Regurgitation of undigested food is a typical symptom of esophageal diverticulum. This condition forms a pouch in the esophagus that can trap food, leading to regurgitation of undigested food. The other options are not typically associated with esophageal diverticulum.

5. What instruction should the nurse give regarding the administration of alendronate to a patient with osteoporosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering alendronate to a patient with osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning. It is important for the patient to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to prevent esophageal irritation. Taking alendronate with milk, lying down after intake, or taking it before bedtime can reduce the medication's effectiveness or increase the risk of side effects.

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