a 46 year old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely on examination he is disoriented is ataxi
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Nursing Elites

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Adult Medical Surgical ATI

1. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

2. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. The nurse should recognize that which intervention is most critical in promoting healing of the foot ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic clients with foot ulcers, strict control of blood glucose levels is essential for promoting wound healing. High blood glucose levels can impair circulation and compromise the body's ability to fight infection, delaying the healing process. By maintaining optimal blood glucose levels, the client's overall health and wound healing potential are improved.

3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain is to place the tablet under the tongue. This route allows for rapid absorption of the medication, providing quick relief for chest pain associated with myocardial infarction.

4. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.

5. A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice in a 55-year-old woman, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that typically affects middle-aged women, leading to progressive destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts.

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