ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Azotemia
- C. Falls
- D. Infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.
2. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?
- A. The client admitted yesterday with diabetic ketoacidosis whose blood glucose level is now 195 mg/dl.
- B. The client with an ileal conduit created two days ago with a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch.
- C. The client post-triple coronary bypass four days ago who has serosanguinous drainage in the chest tube.
- D. The client with a pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound with a current pulse oximeter reading of 90%.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.
3. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients for these side effects to prevent complications and provide appropriate interventions.
4. A patient with severe anemia is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulate white blood cell production
- B. Increase platelet count
- C. Promote red blood cell production
- D. Enhance clotting factor production
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin is a hormone that primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. By increasing red blood cell production, erythropoietin helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues, which is essential in managing anemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct effect on white blood cells, platelets, or clotting factors.
5. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?
- A. A dedicated small bowel series has a high likelihood of being positive
- B. 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor
- C. The patient should have a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion to identify the source of blood loss
- D. Hormonal therapy has been shown to be effective in decreasing blood loss due to arteriovenous malformations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.
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