a client has been diagnosed with an esophageal diverticulum after undergoing diagnostic imaging when taking the health history the nurse should expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A client has been diagnosed with an esophageal diverticulum after undergoing diagnostic imaging. When taking the health history, the nurse should expect the client to describe what sign or symptom?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Regurgitation of undigested food is a typical symptom of esophageal diverticulum. This condition forms a pouch in the esophagus that can trap food, leading to regurgitation of undigested food. The other options are not typically associated with esophageal diverticulum.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on warfarin therapy, especially with a history of DVT, is to use a soft-bristled toothbrush. This is crucial to prevent gum bleeding, which is a risk due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness, so they should be consumed consistently to maintain a balance. Aspirin is not recommended for headaches in clients on warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin therapy.

3. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is important for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication in treating peptic ulcer disease. Choice A ('Take the medication with food') is incorrect because omeprazole should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect as it does not align with the optimal timing for omeprazole administration. Choice D ('Take the medication as needed for pain relief') is incorrect because omeprazole is not typically used for immediate pain relief but rather for long-term management of peptic ulcer disease.

4. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

5. A patient is being cared for after bariatric surgery, and the healthcare provider is assessing for hemorrhage. What is a sign of hemorrhage?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frank red bleeding from the surgical site is a significant sign of hemorrhage that warrants immediate attention. It indicates active bleeding that needs to be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

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