a patient with asthma is prescribed salmeterol what is the primary purpose of this medication
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1. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Salmeterol is classified as a long-acting beta2-agonist, which is used to prevent asthma attacks by providing extended bronchodilation. It is not typically used for immediate relief of acute bronchospasm or for suppressing cough. Additionally, salmeterol does not have the primary purpose of thinning respiratory secretions.

2. A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'The cancer involves only the cervix.' In staging, 'Tis' indicates cancer in situ, which means it is localized to the cervix and not invasive at this time. The differentiation of cancer cells is not part of clinical staging. Since the cancer is in situ, its origin is the cervix. Further testing is not required as the cancer has not spread beyond the cervix. Choice B is incorrect as the staging information provided does not relate to the resemblance of cancer cells to normal cells. Choice C is incorrect because further testing is not necessary as the cancer is localized. Choice D is incorrect because the staging information provided clearly indicates the site of origin as the cervix.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving prednisone (Deltasone). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infection. Prednisone is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used in COPD to reduce inflammation. Due to its immunosuppressive effects, clients are at an increased risk of developing infections. Therefore, nurses should closely monitor clients receiving prednisone for signs and symptoms of infections to provide timely interventions.

4. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely etiology for this nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. Clients with myasthenia gravis often experience muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, which can lead to diminished cough effort. This weakness can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at a high risk. Pain when coughing (choice A) is not directly related to the etiology of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. While thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) can contribute to airway clearance issues, the primary concern in myasthenia gravis is the muscle weakness affecting cough effort.

5. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

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