Nursing Elites

1. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?

• A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
• B. Prevent asthma attacks
• C. Suppress cough
• D. Thin respiratory secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Salmeterol is classified as a long-acting beta2-agonist, which is used to prevent asthma attacks by providing extended bronchodilation. It is not typically used for immediate relief of acute bronchospasm or for suppressing cough. Additionally, salmeterol does not have the primary purpose of thinning respiratory secretions.

2. What should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of enoxaparin in a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The international normalized ratio (INR) is the appropriate parameter to monitor the effectiveness of enoxaparin in preventing clot formation in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). INR reflects the clotting ability of the blood and is commonly used to assess the therapeutic range of anticoagulant medications, such as enoxaparin, which is crucial in managing and preventing thrombotic events like DVT.

3. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

• A. Pain during coughing.
• B. Diminished cough effort.
• C. Thick, dry secretions.
• D. Excessive inflammation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

4. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Shortness of breath.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nausea and vomiting are common signs of digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious complications like dysrhythmias. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further harm to the client. Choice A, a heart rate of 58 beats per minute, although slightly lower than normal, may be appropriate for a client on digoxin. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice D, shortness of breath, is a common symptom in heart failure and requires monitoring but is not as indicative of digoxin toxicity as nausea and vomiting.

5. What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitor
• B. Endoscopic balloon dilatation
• C. Sucralfate
• D. Esophageal resection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation and radiologic findings are consistent with achalasia. The absence of a mass on upper endoscopy and CT scan helps rule out secondary causes. Achalasia is best managed with endoscopic balloon dilatation or myotomy. Proton-pump inhibitors are not effective for achalasia. Sucralfate is not a primary treatment for achalasia. Esophageal resection is only considered if malignancy develops. Patients with achalasia may experience chest pain and weight loss due to food accumulation in the dilated esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation is a safe and effective treatment option for improving symptoms in achalasia patients.

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