Nursing Elites

1. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?

• A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
• B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
• C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
• D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.

2. A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What dietary advice should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase intake of caffeine.
• B. Maintain a consistent salt intake.
• C. Avoid dairy products.
• D. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain a consistent salt intake. Patients prescribed lithium should maintain a consistent salt intake to help stabilize lithium levels. Fluctuations in salt intake can affect the levels of lithium in the body, potentially leading to toxicity or reduced effectiveness of the medication. It is important for patients to be consistent with their salt intake and to avoid sudden increases or decreases. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of caffeine is not recommended as it can interfere with the effects of lithium. Avoiding dairy products is not necessary unless there are specific intolerances or interactions with other medications. While green leafy vegetables are generally healthy, there is no specific recommendation to increase their intake in relation to lithium therapy.

3. The client has undergone a thyroidectomy, and the nurse is providing care. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Hoarseness and a sore throat.
• B. Difficulty swallowing.
• C. Numbness and tingling around the mouth.
• D. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent parathyroid gland removal. Immediate intervention is required to prevent severe hypocalcemia manifestations like tetany or seizures. Hoarseness and a sore throat are common after a thyroidectomy due to surgical trauma and irritation to the vocal cords, not requiring immediate intervention. Difficulty swallowing can be expected due to postoperative swelling or edema, but it should be monitored closely. A temperature of 100.2°F is a mild fever and may be a normal postoperative response, not necessitating immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

4. A patient with diabetes insipidus is prescribed desmopressin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase urine output
• B. Reduce blood sugar levels
• C. Decrease urine output
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Desmopressin is prescribed to decrease urine output in patients with diabetes insipidus. It works by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, helping to control fluid balance in the body.

5. A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding. Prothrombin time (PT) primarily assesses the extrinsic pathway and is not as sensitive to heparin therapy. Bleeding time and platelet count are not specific tests for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

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