Nursing Elites

1. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

2. A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Inflammatory bowel disease
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Lactose intolerance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chronic constipation, bloating, abdominal pain relieved with defecation, absence of weight loss, blood in stools, or nocturnal symptoms, along with normal physical examination and routine blood tests, are indicative of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain or discomfort and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause. It is a diagnosis of exclusion made based on symptom criteria, and the provided clinical scenario aligns with the typical presentation of IBS.

3. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What symptom should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?

• A. Joint pain
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Loss of sensation
• D. Severe headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, especially in the voluntary muscles. Patients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience weakness in muscles that control eye movements, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking. This weakness typically worsens with activity and improves with rest. Joint pain, loss of sensation, and severe headaches are not typical symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Therefore, the correct answer is muscle weakness (choice B) as it aligns with the characteristic symptom of myasthenia gravis.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. What is the purpose of this medication?

• A. To lower blood sugar levels
• B. To reduce ammonia levels
• C. To treat liver inflammation
• D. To improve bile flow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed to reduce ammonia levels in clients with liver cirrhosis. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which in turn traps ammonia in the colon and helps its elimination from the body through stool, thereby reducing the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. Choice A is incorrect because lactulose does not lower blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect as lactulose is not used to treat liver inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as lactulose does not improve bile flow.

5. A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?

• A. Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy
• B. Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
• C. Treat her for H. pylori
• D. Obtain a dedicated small bowel series

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The next step after finding an elevated fasting serum gastrin level is to perform a secretin stimulation test. This test helps differentiate between gastrinoma and other causes of elevated gastrin levels, such as proton-pump inhibitor therapy or H2 antagonists. In gastrinoma, the serum gastrin level should further increase after secretin infusion, while in other conditions, the levels would not significantly rise. Exploratory laparotomy would be premature without confirming the diagnosis. Treating for H. pylori is not indicated as the diagnosis of gastrinoma is under consideration and not Helicobacter pylori infection. A dedicated small bowel series is not the next appropriate step in this scenario.

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